Is sum of the reciprocal of any subsequence of natural number divergent?












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Let, ${a_n}$ be any subsequence of natural numbers.



Then, is $sumfrac{1}{a_n}$ always divergent?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 6 '18 at 5:33
















-1












$begingroup$


Let, ${a_n}$ be any subsequence of natural numbers.



Then, is $sumfrac{1}{a_n}$ always divergent?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 6 '18 at 5:33














-1












-1








-1


1



$begingroup$


Let, ${a_n}$ be any subsequence of natural numbers.



Then, is $sumfrac{1}{a_n}$ always divergent?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let, ${a_n}$ be any subsequence of natural numbers.



Then, is $sumfrac{1}{a_n}$ always divergent?







sequences-and-series






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edited Dec 6 '18 at 5:34







Tom.

















asked Dec 6 '18 at 5:31









Tom.Tom.

14218




14218








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 6 '18 at 5:33














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 6 '18 at 5:33








2




2




$begingroup$
This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 6 '18 at 5:33




$begingroup$
This is almost like asking if there are any series that converge...
$endgroup$
– Clayton
Dec 6 '18 at 5:33










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

No. Consider the subsequence defined by the powers of two: ${2,4,8,16,32,64,...}$. This results in the summation



$$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{2^k} = frac{1}{2} +frac{1}{4} +frac{1}{8} +frac{1}{16} +frac{1}{32} + ...$$



We note that this is an infinite geometric series of ratio $1/2$. Thus, from the formula for the summation of such a series, it can be shown that this summation converges to $1$.



Truly many such series exist; this is just one such example.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    No. It is easy to produce a counter example



    Let $a_n=n^2$. So it is the sequence of square numbers 1, 4, 9 ,16 ,..



    Then it is known that:
    $$sum_{n=1}^infty frac 1{n^2} = frac{pi^2}{6}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      $sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{1}{k^p}:left{begin{matrix}
      mathrm{converges} &,p>1 \
      mathrm{diverges} &,pleq1
      end{matrix}right.$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        No. Even though $sum 1/n$ diverges,
        if you discard all the terms whose denominator involves the digit $9$, the series would become convergent, and the sum would be less than $80$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
          $endgroup$
          – Jyrki Lahtonen
          Dec 6 '18 at 10:15



















        0












        $begingroup$

        Let $n$ be any natural number greater than $1$,



        $$sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{n^k}=frac{1}{1-frac1n}=frac{n}{n-1}$$



        is a geometric series that converges.






        share|cite|improve this answer









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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          No. Consider the subsequence defined by the powers of two: ${2,4,8,16,32,64,...}$. This results in the summation



          $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{2^k} = frac{1}{2} +frac{1}{4} +frac{1}{8} +frac{1}{16} +frac{1}{32} + ...$$



          We note that this is an infinite geometric series of ratio $1/2$. Thus, from the formula for the summation of such a series, it can be shown that this summation converges to $1$.



          Truly many such series exist; this is just one such example.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            1












            $begingroup$

            No. Consider the subsequence defined by the powers of two: ${2,4,8,16,32,64,...}$. This results in the summation



            $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{2^k} = frac{1}{2} +frac{1}{4} +frac{1}{8} +frac{1}{16} +frac{1}{32} + ...$$



            We note that this is an infinite geometric series of ratio $1/2$. Thus, from the formula for the summation of such a series, it can be shown that this summation converges to $1$.



            Truly many such series exist; this is just one such example.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              No. Consider the subsequence defined by the powers of two: ${2,4,8,16,32,64,...}$. This results in the summation



              $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{2^k} = frac{1}{2} +frac{1}{4} +frac{1}{8} +frac{1}{16} +frac{1}{32} + ...$$



              We note that this is an infinite geometric series of ratio $1/2$. Thus, from the formula for the summation of such a series, it can be shown that this summation converges to $1$.



              Truly many such series exist; this is just one such example.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              No. Consider the subsequence defined by the powers of two: ${2,4,8,16,32,64,...}$. This results in the summation



              $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{2^k} = frac{1}{2} +frac{1}{4} +frac{1}{8} +frac{1}{16} +frac{1}{32} + ...$$



              We note that this is an infinite geometric series of ratio $1/2$. Thus, from the formula for the summation of such a series, it can be shown that this summation converges to $1$.



              Truly many such series exist; this is just one such example.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 6 '18 at 5:34









              Eevee TrainerEevee Trainer

              5,4491936




              5,4491936























                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  No. It is easy to produce a counter example



                  Let $a_n=n^2$. So it is the sequence of square numbers 1, 4, 9 ,16 ,..



                  Then it is known that:
                  $$sum_{n=1}^infty frac 1{n^2} = frac{pi^2}{6}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    No. It is easy to produce a counter example



                    Let $a_n=n^2$. So it is the sequence of square numbers 1, 4, 9 ,16 ,..



                    Then it is known that:
                    $$sum_{n=1}^infty frac 1{n^2} = frac{pi^2}{6}$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      No. It is easy to produce a counter example



                      Let $a_n=n^2$. So it is the sequence of square numbers 1, 4, 9 ,16 ,..



                      Then it is known that:
                      $$sum_{n=1}^infty frac 1{n^2} = frac{pi^2}{6}$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      No. It is easy to produce a counter example



                      Let $a_n=n^2$. So it is the sequence of square numbers 1, 4, 9 ,16 ,..



                      Then it is known that:
                      $$sum_{n=1}^infty frac 1{n^2} = frac{pi^2}{6}$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 6 '18 at 5:35









                      M.AM.A

                      1599




                      1599























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          $sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{1}{k^p}:left{begin{matrix}
                          mathrm{converges} &,p>1 \
                          mathrm{diverges} &,pleq1
                          end{matrix}right.$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            $sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{1}{k^p}:left{begin{matrix}
                            mathrm{converges} &,p>1 \
                            mathrm{diverges} &,pleq1
                            end{matrix}right.$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              $sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{1}{k^p}:left{begin{matrix}
                              mathrm{converges} &,p>1 \
                              mathrm{diverges} &,pleq1
                              end{matrix}right.$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              $sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{1}{k^p}:left{begin{matrix}
                              mathrm{converges} &,p>1 \
                              mathrm{diverges} &,pleq1
                              end{matrix}right.$







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Dec 6 '18 at 5:47









                              Hussain-AlqatariHussain-Alqatari

                              3187




                              3187























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  No. Even though $sum 1/n$ diverges,
                                  if you discard all the terms whose denominator involves the digit $9$, the series would become convergent, and the sum would be less than $80$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$













                                  • $begingroup$
                                    Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                    Dec 6 '18 at 10:15
















                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  No. Even though $sum 1/n$ diverges,
                                  if you discard all the terms whose denominator involves the digit $9$, the series would become convergent, and the sum would be less than $80$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$













                                  • $begingroup$
                                    Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                    Dec 6 '18 at 10:15














                                  1












                                  1








                                  1





                                  $begingroup$

                                  No. Even though $sum 1/n$ diverges,
                                  if you discard all the terms whose denominator involves the digit $9$, the series would become convergent, and the sum would be less than $80$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$



                                  No. Even though $sum 1/n$ diverges,
                                  if you discard all the terms whose denominator involves the digit $9$, the series would become convergent, and the sum would be less than $80$.







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Dec 6 '18 at 5:47









                                  xbhxbh

                                  6,0231522




                                  6,0231522












                                  • $begingroup$
                                    Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                    Dec 6 '18 at 10:15


















                                  • $begingroup$
                                    Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                    Dec 6 '18 at 10:15
















                                  $begingroup$
                                  Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                  Dec 6 '18 at 10:15




                                  $begingroup$
                                  Several correct answers to this question, but this is the only cute answer (so far).
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Jyrki Lahtonen
                                  Dec 6 '18 at 10:15











                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Let $n$ be any natural number greater than $1$,



                                  $$sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{n^k}=frac{1}{1-frac1n}=frac{n}{n-1}$$



                                  is a geometric series that converges.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Let $n$ be any natural number greater than $1$,



                                    $$sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{n^k}=frac{1}{1-frac1n}=frac{n}{n-1}$$



                                    is a geometric series that converges.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Let $n$ be any natural number greater than $1$,



                                      $$sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{n^k}=frac{1}{1-frac1n}=frac{n}{n-1}$$



                                      is a geometric series that converges.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Let $n$ be any natural number greater than $1$,



                                      $$sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{n^k}=frac{1}{1-frac1n}=frac{n}{n-1}$$



                                      is a geometric series that converges.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Dec 6 '18 at 7:49









                                      Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

                                      100k1465117




                                      100k1465117






























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