What is the simplest lower bound on prime counting functions proof wise?












11












$begingroup$


I am trying to understand how a lower bound can exist on the prime counting function, and to begin this process of educating myself I am trying to find a simple complete proof, that does not hinge on another more complex theory?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 10




    $begingroup$
    Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Aug 13 '16 at 9:42
















11












$begingroup$


I am trying to understand how a lower bound can exist on the prime counting function, and to begin this process of educating myself I am trying to find a simple complete proof, that does not hinge on another more complex theory?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 10




    $begingroup$
    Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Aug 13 '16 at 9:42














11












11








11


2



$begingroup$


I am trying to understand how a lower bound can exist on the prime counting function, and to begin this process of educating myself I am trying to find a simple complete proof, that does not hinge on another more complex theory?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am trying to understand how a lower bound can exist on the prime counting function, and to begin this process of educating myself I am trying to find a simple complete proof, that does not hinge on another more complex theory?







prime-numbers






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Aug 13 '16 at 2:34









My NameMy Name

1497




1497








  • 10




    $begingroup$
    Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Aug 13 '16 at 9:42














  • 10




    $begingroup$
    Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Aug 13 '16 at 9:42








10




10




$begingroup$
Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Aug 13 '16 at 9:42




$begingroup$
Well, I'd say the simplest lower bound (although a not very useful one) is $pi(n)ge 0$. This one can be proven without even making any reference to the properties of primes. ;-)
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Aug 13 '16 at 9:42










6 Answers
6






active

oldest

votes


















14












$begingroup$

Here's a very easy to prove lower bound:



Consider the product of all primes less than $n$, call it $P_n$. Let the largest prime less than $n$ be $q_n$. There must be a prime on $[q_n+1, P_n+1]$ (this is because $P_n+1$ must itself be prime or be divisible by some other prime, but isn't divisible by any prime less than or equal to $q_n$). Clearly, $P_n+1leq n!$ for $n>2,ninmathbb{N}$



Given that $pi(3)=2$, we see that $pi(3!)=pi(6)geq2+1=3$, then $pi(6!)geq4$



In general $pi(3underbrace{!!...!!}_{n})geq n+1$



Interpolation is easy, let $pi(n)=pi(k)$ for $k=sup{3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}|3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}leq n}$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
    $endgroup$
    – Erlend Graff
    Aug 14 '16 at 0:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Wow, nice answer sir!
    $endgroup$
    – Sandeep Silwal
    Aug 14 '16 at 16:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
    $endgroup$
    – rikhavshah
    Aug 14 '16 at 21:09



















29












$begingroup$

Actually, I absolutely fail to understand why the classical Chebyshev bound is considered to be so difficult. The proof consists of four elementary steps:



1) $A_n={2n choose n}=frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$ is an integer whose factorization includes only primes $ple 2n$. In addition, this number is fairly large: since $frac{n+k}{k}ge 2$ for all $1le kle n$, we have $A_nge 2^n$.



2) The power of a prime $p$ in $m!$ equals $left[frac mpright]+left[frac m{p^2}right]+dots+left[frac m{p^k}right]$ where $p^kle m< p^{k+1}$.



3) Hence the power of any prime $p$ in $A_n$ equals $sum_{j=1}^{k_p}left(left[frac {2n}{p^j}right]-2left[frac n{p^j}right]right)le k_p$,
where $p^{k_p}le 2n< p^{k_p+1}$ (we used here the trivial observation that $[2x]-2[x]le 1$ for all $x$).



4) Thus, $2^nle A_nle prod_{ple 2n}p^{k_p}le (2n)^{pi(2n)}$ whence
$$
pi(2n)ge frac{nlog 2}{log(2n)}
$$
giving you the right order of magnitude at the expense of at most half an hour of studies.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
    $endgroup$
    – Benjamin Dickman
    Aug 13 '16 at 19:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
    $endgroup$
    – Mehrdad
    Aug 13 '16 at 20:42






  • 5




    $begingroup$
    @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
    $endgroup$
    – quid
    Aug 13 '16 at 22:36





















9












$begingroup$

There's a simple lower bound due to Erdős which I detailed over in another answer. For completeness, I'll repost the argument as an answer here.




Let $ninmathbb{N}={1,2,3,ldots}.$ Consider the set $$S(n) = {(k,l)inmathbb{N}^{2}:ltext{ is square-free and }k^{2}lleq n}.$$ It is a standard fact that every natural number has a unique representation in the form $k^{2}l,$ where $k$ and $l$ are natural numbers and $l$ is square-free. This gives $lvert S(n)rvert = n.$



Now if we have a pair $(k,l)$ with $k^{2}lleq n,$ then we must have $k^{2}leq n$ and $lleq n$, since $k$ and $l$ are positive. Note that this gives $kleqsqrt{n}.$ Since $l$ is square-free, $l$ can be expressed as a product of distinct primes, each of which must be not-greater-than $n$ since $lleq n$. That is, $l$ can be expressed as a product of the primes $p_{1},p_{2},ldots,p_{pi(n)}.$ There are $2^{pi(n)}$ such products.



Therefore, if we know $(k,l)in S(n)$ then there are at most $sqrt{n}$ possibilities for what $k$ might be and at most $2^{pi(n)}$ possibilities for what $l$ might be (independent of $k$, of course). It follows that $lvert S(n)rvert leq 2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n},$ so $nleq2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n}.$



Taking $log$s and rearranging gives the following result: $$pi(n)geqfrac{log{n}}{2log{2}}quadtext{for }n=1,2,ldots.$$







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    8












    $begingroup$

    According to Bertrand's postulate (proofs of which may be found here), if $ngeq 2$, then there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ (not including $n$). Therefore, in general, $pi(2x) geq pi(x)+1$. Since $pi(2)=1$, we have $pi(4)geq 1+1=2, pi(8)geq 2+1=3$, and in general, $pi(2^n)geq n implies pi(x) geq log_2(x)$ (since $pi$ is increasing). This lower bound is by no means optimal, but it is simple and admits a relatively simple proof.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
      $endgroup$
      – Will R
      Aug 13 '16 at 23:27



















    7












    $begingroup$

    Given $k$ primes $p_1,ldots,p_k$, let us calculate the number of products of these primes below some threshold $2^n$. That is, ask how many choices of exponents $a_iin mathbb N$ satisfy:
    $$p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}ldots p_k^{a_k}leq 2^n.$$
    Since every prime is at least $2$, we get that this statement implies
    $$2^{a_1+a_2+ldots+a_k}leq 2^n$$
    $$a_1+a_2+ldots+a_kleq n.$$
    A stars and bars argument establishes that the number of tuples $(a_1,ldots,a_k)$ satisfying this is ${n+kchoose n}$. There are $2^n$ integers in the interval $[1,2^n]$ and each can be written as a product of primes less than $2^n$. Thus, we must have, setting $k=pi(2^n)$:
    $${n+pi(2^n)choose n}geq 2^n.$$
    That's a pretty painless proof.





    Okay, let's do the painful bit of showing that this is a logarithmic bound. This is, unfortunately, using harder tools than were required to derive the bound in the first place. It basically reduces to figuring out that there is some $alpha$ such that the minimal $pi(2^n)geq alpha n$ for large enough $n$. To do so, consider the value $${(alpha+1)n choose n}=frac{((alpha+1)n)!}{n!(alpha n)!}$$ where we slightly abuse notation in assuming the relevant terms are integers. Since we're going to use an asymptotic approximation, this does not really matter. Using Stirling's approximation that $n!sim sqrt{2pi n}(n/e)^n$ on every factorial gives
    $${(alpha+1)n choose n}sim frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot frac{((alpha+1)n/e)^{(alpha+1)n}}{(n/e)^n(alpha n/e)^{alpha n}}=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot left(frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}right)^n$$
    What should be clear is that this function is eventually bounded by $frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}$, meaning that expression must be at least two. Numerically, this gives $alphageq .2938ldots$. For the minimal possible $alpha$ given by this inequality, we would get
    $$pi(2^n)geq alpha n$$
    for big enough $n$. This suffices to establish a logarithmic lower bound on the prime counting function.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      2












      $begingroup$

      Here is an answer that uses the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Let $pi(n)$ be the number of primes less than or equal to $n$. For each natural $k$ less than $n$, the exponent of the primes in the prime factorization of $k$ can be at most $log_2(n)$.



      Since there are $pi(n)$ total primes that can be used in the prime factorization of $k$, we have



      $$(log_2(n) + 1)^{pi(n)} ge n implies pi(n) ge frac{log(n)}{log(log_2(n) + 1)} approx frac{log(n)}{log log(n)}.$$



      Interestingly, exponentiating this bound gives you the PNT.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
        $endgroup$
        – Sonk
        Oct 23 '16 at 15:26












      protected by Saad Dec 13 '18 at 16:27



      Thank you for your interest in this question.
      Because it has attracted low-quality or spam answers that had to be removed, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site (the association bonus does not count).



      Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?














      6 Answers
      6






      active

      oldest

      votes








      6 Answers
      6






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      14












      $begingroup$

      Here's a very easy to prove lower bound:



      Consider the product of all primes less than $n$, call it $P_n$. Let the largest prime less than $n$ be $q_n$. There must be a prime on $[q_n+1, P_n+1]$ (this is because $P_n+1$ must itself be prime or be divisible by some other prime, but isn't divisible by any prime less than or equal to $q_n$). Clearly, $P_n+1leq n!$ for $n>2,ninmathbb{N}$



      Given that $pi(3)=2$, we see that $pi(3!)=pi(6)geq2+1=3$, then $pi(6!)geq4$



      In general $pi(3underbrace{!!...!!}_{n})geq n+1$



      Interpolation is easy, let $pi(n)=pi(k)$ for $k=sup{3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}|3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}leq n}$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
        $endgroup$
        – Erlend Graff
        Aug 14 '16 at 0:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Wow, nice answer sir!
        $endgroup$
        – Sandeep Silwal
        Aug 14 '16 at 16:08






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
        $endgroup$
        – rikhavshah
        Aug 14 '16 at 21:09
















      14












      $begingroup$

      Here's a very easy to prove lower bound:



      Consider the product of all primes less than $n$, call it $P_n$. Let the largest prime less than $n$ be $q_n$. There must be a prime on $[q_n+1, P_n+1]$ (this is because $P_n+1$ must itself be prime or be divisible by some other prime, but isn't divisible by any prime less than or equal to $q_n$). Clearly, $P_n+1leq n!$ for $n>2,ninmathbb{N}$



      Given that $pi(3)=2$, we see that $pi(3!)=pi(6)geq2+1=3$, then $pi(6!)geq4$



      In general $pi(3underbrace{!!...!!}_{n})geq n+1$



      Interpolation is easy, let $pi(n)=pi(k)$ for $k=sup{3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}|3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}leq n}$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
        $endgroup$
        – Erlend Graff
        Aug 14 '16 at 0:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Wow, nice answer sir!
        $endgroup$
        – Sandeep Silwal
        Aug 14 '16 at 16:08






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
        $endgroup$
        – rikhavshah
        Aug 14 '16 at 21:09














      14












      14








      14





      $begingroup$

      Here's a very easy to prove lower bound:



      Consider the product of all primes less than $n$, call it $P_n$. Let the largest prime less than $n$ be $q_n$. There must be a prime on $[q_n+1, P_n+1]$ (this is because $P_n+1$ must itself be prime or be divisible by some other prime, but isn't divisible by any prime less than or equal to $q_n$). Clearly, $P_n+1leq n!$ for $n>2,ninmathbb{N}$



      Given that $pi(3)=2$, we see that $pi(3!)=pi(6)geq2+1=3$, then $pi(6!)geq4$



      In general $pi(3underbrace{!!...!!}_{n})geq n+1$



      Interpolation is easy, let $pi(n)=pi(k)$ for $k=sup{3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}|3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}leq n}$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Here's a very easy to prove lower bound:



      Consider the product of all primes less than $n$, call it $P_n$. Let the largest prime less than $n$ be $q_n$. There must be a prime on $[q_n+1, P_n+1]$ (this is because $P_n+1$ must itself be prime or be divisible by some other prime, but isn't divisible by any prime less than or equal to $q_n$). Clearly, $P_n+1leq n!$ for $n>2,ninmathbb{N}$



      Given that $pi(3)=2$, we see that $pi(3!)=pi(6)geq2+1=3$, then $pi(6!)geq4$



      In general $pi(3underbrace{!!...!!}_{n})geq n+1$



      Interpolation is easy, let $pi(n)=pi(k)$ for $k=sup{3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}|3underbrace{!!...!!}_{m}leq n}$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Aug 14 '16 at 21:07

























      answered Aug 13 '16 at 3:16









      rikhavshahrikhavshah

      1,130212




      1,130212












      • $begingroup$
        This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
        $endgroup$
        – Erlend Graff
        Aug 14 '16 at 0:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Wow, nice answer sir!
        $endgroup$
        – Sandeep Silwal
        Aug 14 '16 at 16:08






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
        $endgroup$
        – rikhavshah
        Aug 14 '16 at 21:09


















      • $begingroup$
        This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
        $endgroup$
        – Erlend Graff
        Aug 14 '16 at 0:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Wow, nice answer sir!
        $endgroup$
        – Sandeep Silwal
        Aug 14 '16 at 16:08






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
        $endgroup$
        – rikhavshah
        Aug 14 '16 at 21:09
















      $begingroup$
      This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
      $endgroup$
      – Erlend Graff
      Aug 14 '16 at 0:12




      $begingroup$
      This is a nice answer! However, shouldn't it be "this is because $P_n + 1$ must itself..." and not $P_1 + 1$? Also, would it perhaps be clearer to let $q_{pi(n)}$ be the largest prime less than $n$ to make the tie to the prime counting function $pi(cdot)$ more obvious (i.e. enumerate the primes as $q_1, ldots, q_{pi(n)}$)? :)
      $endgroup$
      – Erlend Graff
      Aug 14 '16 at 0:12




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      Wow, nice answer sir!
      $endgroup$
      – Sandeep Silwal
      Aug 14 '16 at 16:08




      $begingroup$
      Wow, nice answer sir!
      $endgroup$
      – Sandeep Silwal
      Aug 14 '16 at 16:08




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
      $endgroup$
      – rikhavshah
      Aug 14 '16 at 21:09




      $begingroup$
      @ErlendGraff thanks for the P_n correction. The benefit of defining q_n as I have is to make comparison to n! very easy (as opposed to having to compare P_n to pi(n)!)
      $endgroup$
      – rikhavshah
      Aug 14 '16 at 21:09











      29












      $begingroup$

      Actually, I absolutely fail to understand why the classical Chebyshev bound is considered to be so difficult. The proof consists of four elementary steps:



      1) $A_n={2n choose n}=frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$ is an integer whose factorization includes only primes $ple 2n$. In addition, this number is fairly large: since $frac{n+k}{k}ge 2$ for all $1le kle n$, we have $A_nge 2^n$.



      2) The power of a prime $p$ in $m!$ equals $left[frac mpright]+left[frac m{p^2}right]+dots+left[frac m{p^k}right]$ where $p^kle m< p^{k+1}$.



      3) Hence the power of any prime $p$ in $A_n$ equals $sum_{j=1}^{k_p}left(left[frac {2n}{p^j}right]-2left[frac n{p^j}right]right)le k_p$,
      where $p^{k_p}le 2n< p^{k_p+1}$ (we used here the trivial observation that $[2x]-2[x]le 1$ for all $x$).



      4) Thus, $2^nle A_nle prod_{ple 2n}p^{k_p}le (2n)^{pi(2n)}$ whence
      $$
      pi(2n)ge frac{nlog 2}{log(2n)}
      $$
      giving you the right order of magnitude at the expense of at most half an hour of studies.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
        $endgroup$
        – Benjamin Dickman
        Aug 13 '16 at 19:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
        $endgroup$
        – Mehrdad
        Aug 13 '16 at 20:42






      • 5




        $begingroup$
        @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
        $endgroup$
        – quid
        Aug 13 '16 at 22:36


















      29












      $begingroup$

      Actually, I absolutely fail to understand why the classical Chebyshev bound is considered to be so difficult. The proof consists of four elementary steps:



      1) $A_n={2n choose n}=frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$ is an integer whose factorization includes only primes $ple 2n$. In addition, this number is fairly large: since $frac{n+k}{k}ge 2$ for all $1le kle n$, we have $A_nge 2^n$.



      2) The power of a prime $p$ in $m!$ equals $left[frac mpright]+left[frac m{p^2}right]+dots+left[frac m{p^k}right]$ where $p^kle m< p^{k+1}$.



      3) Hence the power of any prime $p$ in $A_n$ equals $sum_{j=1}^{k_p}left(left[frac {2n}{p^j}right]-2left[frac n{p^j}right]right)le k_p$,
      where $p^{k_p}le 2n< p^{k_p+1}$ (we used here the trivial observation that $[2x]-2[x]le 1$ for all $x$).



      4) Thus, $2^nle A_nle prod_{ple 2n}p^{k_p}le (2n)^{pi(2n)}$ whence
      $$
      pi(2n)ge frac{nlog 2}{log(2n)}
      $$
      giving you the right order of magnitude at the expense of at most half an hour of studies.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
        $endgroup$
        – Benjamin Dickman
        Aug 13 '16 at 19:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
        $endgroup$
        – Mehrdad
        Aug 13 '16 at 20:42






      • 5




        $begingroup$
        @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
        $endgroup$
        – quid
        Aug 13 '16 at 22:36
















      29












      29








      29





      $begingroup$

      Actually, I absolutely fail to understand why the classical Chebyshev bound is considered to be so difficult. The proof consists of four elementary steps:



      1) $A_n={2n choose n}=frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$ is an integer whose factorization includes only primes $ple 2n$. In addition, this number is fairly large: since $frac{n+k}{k}ge 2$ for all $1le kle n$, we have $A_nge 2^n$.



      2) The power of a prime $p$ in $m!$ equals $left[frac mpright]+left[frac m{p^2}right]+dots+left[frac m{p^k}right]$ where $p^kle m< p^{k+1}$.



      3) Hence the power of any prime $p$ in $A_n$ equals $sum_{j=1}^{k_p}left(left[frac {2n}{p^j}right]-2left[frac n{p^j}right]right)le k_p$,
      where $p^{k_p}le 2n< p^{k_p+1}$ (we used here the trivial observation that $[2x]-2[x]le 1$ for all $x$).



      4) Thus, $2^nle A_nle prod_{ple 2n}p^{k_p}le (2n)^{pi(2n)}$ whence
      $$
      pi(2n)ge frac{nlog 2}{log(2n)}
      $$
      giving you the right order of magnitude at the expense of at most half an hour of studies.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Actually, I absolutely fail to understand why the classical Chebyshev bound is considered to be so difficult. The proof consists of four elementary steps:



      1) $A_n={2n choose n}=frac{(2n)!}{n!^2}$ is an integer whose factorization includes only primes $ple 2n$. In addition, this number is fairly large: since $frac{n+k}{k}ge 2$ for all $1le kle n$, we have $A_nge 2^n$.



      2) The power of a prime $p$ in $m!$ equals $left[frac mpright]+left[frac m{p^2}right]+dots+left[frac m{p^k}right]$ where $p^kle m< p^{k+1}$.



      3) Hence the power of any prime $p$ in $A_n$ equals $sum_{j=1}^{k_p}left(left[frac {2n}{p^j}right]-2left[frac n{p^j}right]right)le k_p$,
      where $p^{k_p}le 2n< p^{k_p+1}$ (we used here the trivial observation that $[2x]-2[x]le 1$ for all $x$).



      4) Thus, $2^nle A_nle prod_{ple 2n}p^{k_p}le (2n)^{pi(2n)}$ whence
      $$
      pi(2n)ge frac{nlog 2}{log(2n)}
      $$
      giving you the right order of magnitude at the expense of at most half an hour of studies.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Aug 13 '16 at 4:46









      fedjafedja

      9,42511527




      9,42511527












      • $begingroup$
        For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
        $endgroup$
        – Benjamin Dickman
        Aug 13 '16 at 19:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
        $endgroup$
        – Mehrdad
        Aug 13 '16 at 20:42






      • 5




        $begingroup$
        @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
        $endgroup$
        – quid
        Aug 13 '16 at 22:36




















      • $begingroup$
        For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
        $endgroup$
        – Benjamin Dickman
        Aug 13 '16 at 19:12






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
        $endgroup$
        – Mehrdad
        Aug 13 '16 at 20:42






      • 5




        $begingroup$
        @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
        $endgroup$
        – quid
        Aug 13 '16 at 22:36


















      $begingroup$
      For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
      $endgroup$
      – Benjamin Dickman
      Aug 13 '16 at 19:12




      $begingroup$
      For the unfamiliar reader: The square brackets denote the floor function in parts 2) and 3) above...
      $endgroup$
      – Benjamin Dickman
      Aug 13 '16 at 19:12




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
      $endgroup$
      – Mehrdad
      Aug 13 '16 at 20:42




      $begingroup$
      @BenjaminDickman: You mean the integer part? Floor isn't denoted by brackets...
      $endgroup$
      – Mehrdad
      Aug 13 '16 at 20:42




      5




      5




      $begingroup$
      @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
      $endgroup$
      – quid
      Aug 13 '16 at 22:36






      $begingroup$
      @Mehrdad it seems it does not really matter given that the quantities are positive. But actually it is a common notation for floor.
      $endgroup$
      – quid
      Aug 13 '16 at 22:36













      9












      $begingroup$

      There's a simple lower bound due to Erdős which I detailed over in another answer. For completeness, I'll repost the argument as an answer here.




      Let $ninmathbb{N}={1,2,3,ldots}.$ Consider the set $$S(n) = {(k,l)inmathbb{N}^{2}:ltext{ is square-free and }k^{2}lleq n}.$$ It is a standard fact that every natural number has a unique representation in the form $k^{2}l,$ where $k$ and $l$ are natural numbers and $l$ is square-free. This gives $lvert S(n)rvert = n.$



      Now if we have a pair $(k,l)$ with $k^{2}lleq n,$ then we must have $k^{2}leq n$ and $lleq n$, since $k$ and $l$ are positive. Note that this gives $kleqsqrt{n}.$ Since $l$ is square-free, $l$ can be expressed as a product of distinct primes, each of which must be not-greater-than $n$ since $lleq n$. That is, $l$ can be expressed as a product of the primes $p_{1},p_{2},ldots,p_{pi(n)}.$ There are $2^{pi(n)}$ such products.



      Therefore, if we know $(k,l)in S(n)$ then there are at most $sqrt{n}$ possibilities for what $k$ might be and at most $2^{pi(n)}$ possibilities for what $l$ might be (independent of $k$, of course). It follows that $lvert S(n)rvert leq 2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n},$ so $nleq2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n}.$



      Taking $log$s and rearranging gives the following result: $$pi(n)geqfrac{log{n}}{2log{2}}quadtext{for }n=1,2,ldots.$$







      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        9












        $begingroup$

        There's a simple lower bound due to Erdős which I detailed over in another answer. For completeness, I'll repost the argument as an answer here.




        Let $ninmathbb{N}={1,2,3,ldots}.$ Consider the set $$S(n) = {(k,l)inmathbb{N}^{2}:ltext{ is square-free and }k^{2}lleq n}.$$ It is a standard fact that every natural number has a unique representation in the form $k^{2}l,$ where $k$ and $l$ are natural numbers and $l$ is square-free. This gives $lvert S(n)rvert = n.$



        Now if we have a pair $(k,l)$ with $k^{2}lleq n,$ then we must have $k^{2}leq n$ and $lleq n$, since $k$ and $l$ are positive. Note that this gives $kleqsqrt{n}.$ Since $l$ is square-free, $l$ can be expressed as a product of distinct primes, each of which must be not-greater-than $n$ since $lleq n$. That is, $l$ can be expressed as a product of the primes $p_{1},p_{2},ldots,p_{pi(n)}.$ There are $2^{pi(n)}$ such products.



        Therefore, if we know $(k,l)in S(n)$ then there are at most $sqrt{n}$ possibilities for what $k$ might be and at most $2^{pi(n)}$ possibilities for what $l$ might be (independent of $k$, of course). It follows that $lvert S(n)rvert leq 2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n},$ so $nleq2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n}.$



        Taking $log$s and rearranging gives the following result: $$pi(n)geqfrac{log{n}}{2log{2}}quadtext{for }n=1,2,ldots.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          9












          9








          9





          $begingroup$

          There's a simple lower bound due to Erdős which I detailed over in another answer. For completeness, I'll repost the argument as an answer here.




          Let $ninmathbb{N}={1,2,3,ldots}.$ Consider the set $$S(n) = {(k,l)inmathbb{N}^{2}:ltext{ is square-free and }k^{2}lleq n}.$$ It is a standard fact that every natural number has a unique representation in the form $k^{2}l,$ where $k$ and $l$ are natural numbers and $l$ is square-free. This gives $lvert S(n)rvert = n.$



          Now if we have a pair $(k,l)$ with $k^{2}lleq n,$ then we must have $k^{2}leq n$ and $lleq n$, since $k$ and $l$ are positive. Note that this gives $kleqsqrt{n}.$ Since $l$ is square-free, $l$ can be expressed as a product of distinct primes, each of which must be not-greater-than $n$ since $lleq n$. That is, $l$ can be expressed as a product of the primes $p_{1},p_{2},ldots,p_{pi(n)}.$ There are $2^{pi(n)}$ such products.



          Therefore, if we know $(k,l)in S(n)$ then there are at most $sqrt{n}$ possibilities for what $k$ might be and at most $2^{pi(n)}$ possibilities for what $l$ might be (independent of $k$, of course). It follows that $lvert S(n)rvert leq 2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n},$ so $nleq2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n}.$



          Taking $log$s and rearranging gives the following result: $$pi(n)geqfrac{log{n}}{2log{2}}quadtext{for }n=1,2,ldots.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          There's a simple lower bound due to Erdős which I detailed over in another answer. For completeness, I'll repost the argument as an answer here.




          Let $ninmathbb{N}={1,2,3,ldots}.$ Consider the set $$S(n) = {(k,l)inmathbb{N}^{2}:ltext{ is square-free and }k^{2}lleq n}.$$ It is a standard fact that every natural number has a unique representation in the form $k^{2}l,$ where $k$ and $l$ are natural numbers and $l$ is square-free. This gives $lvert S(n)rvert = n.$



          Now if we have a pair $(k,l)$ with $k^{2}lleq n,$ then we must have $k^{2}leq n$ and $lleq n$, since $k$ and $l$ are positive. Note that this gives $kleqsqrt{n}.$ Since $l$ is square-free, $l$ can be expressed as a product of distinct primes, each of which must be not-greater-than $n$ since $lleq n$. That is, $l$ can be expressed as a product of the primes $p_{1},p_{2},ldots,p_{pi(n)}.$ There are $2^{pi(n)}$ such products.



          Therefore, if we know $(k,l)in S(n)$ then there are at most $sqrt{n}$ possibilities for what $k$ might be and at most $2^{pi(n)}$ possibilities for what $l$ might be (independent of $k$, of course). It follows that $lvert S(n)rvert leq 2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n},$ so $nleq2^{pi(n)}sqrt{n}.$



          Taking $log$s and rearranging gives the following result: $$pi(n)geqfrac{log{n}}{2log{2}}quadtext{for }n=1,2,ldots.$$








          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19









          Community

          1




          1










          answered Aug 13 '16 at 23:22









          Will RWill R

          6,59731429




          6,59731429























              8












              $begingroup$

              According to Bertrand's postulate (proofs of which may be found here), if $ngeq 2$, then there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ (not including $n$). Therefore, in general, $pi(2x) geq pi(x)+1$. Since $pi(2)=1$, we have $pi(4)geq 1+1=2, pi(8)geq 2+1=3$, and in general, $pi(2^n)geq n implies pi(x) geq log_2(x)$ (since $pi$ is increasing). This lower bound is by no means optimal, but it is simple and admits a relatively simple proof.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$









              • 1




                $begingroup$
                This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
                $endgroup$
                – Will R
                Aug 13 '16 at 23:27
















              8












              $begingroup$

              According to Bertrand's postulate (proofs of which may be found here), if $ngeq 2$, then there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ (not including $n$). Therefore, in general, $pi(2x) geq pi(x)+1$. Since $pi(2)=1$, we have $pi(4)geq 1+1=2, pi(8)geq 2+1=3$, and in general, $pi(2^n)geq n implies pi(x) geq log_2(x)$ (since $pi$ is increasing). This lower bound is by no means optimal, but it is simple and admits a relatively simple proof.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$









              • 1




                $begingroup$
                This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
                $endgroup$
                – Will R
                Aug 13 '16 at 23:27














              8












              8








              8





              $begingroup$

              According to Bertrand's postulate (proofs of which may be found here), if $ngeq 2$, then there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ (not including $n$). Therefore, in general, $pi(2x) geq pi(x)+1$. Since $pi(2)=1$, we have $pi(4)geq 1+1=2, pi(8)geq 2+1=3$, and in general, $pi(2^n)geq n implies pi(x) geq log_2(x)$ (since $pi$ is increasing). This lower bound is by no means optimal, but it is simple and admits a relatively simple proof.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              According to Bertrand's postulate (proofs of which may be found here), if $ngeq 2$, then there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ (not including $n$). Therefore, in general, $pi(2x) geq pi(x)+1$. Since $pi(2)=1$, we have $pi(4)geq 1+1=2, pi(8)geq 2+1=3$, and in general, $pi(2^n)geq n implies pi(x) geq log_2(x)$ (since $pi$ is increasing). This lower bound is by no means optimal, but it is simple and admits a relatively simple proof.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Aug 13 '16 at 2:50









              florenceflorence

              11.5k12045




              11.5k12045








              • 1




                $begingroup$
                This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
                $endgroup$
                – Will R
                Aug 13 '16 at 23:27














              • 1




                $begingroup$
                This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
                $endgroup$
                – Will R
                Aug 13 '16 at 23:27








              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
              $endgroup$
              – Will R
              Aug 13 '16 at 23:27




              $begingroup$
              This is a better bound than that in my answer, but the cost is that you must first prove Bertrand's postulate (still elementary but less "simple").
              $endgroup$
              – Will R
              Aug 13 '16 at 23:27











              7












              $begingroup$

              Given $k$ primes $p_1,ldots,p_k$, let us calculate the number of products of these primes below some threshold $2^n$. That is, ask how many choices of exponents $a_iin mathbb N$ satisfy:
              $$p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}ldots p_k^{a_k}leq 2^n.$$
              Since every prime is at least $2$, we get that this statement implies
              $$2^{a_1+a_2+ldots+a_k}leq 2^n$$
              $$a_1+a_2+ldots+a_kleq n.$$
              A stars and bars argument establishes that the number of tuples $(a_1,ldots,a_k)$ satisfying this is ${n+kchoose n}$. There are $2^n$ integers in the interval $[1,2^n]$ and each can be written as a product of primes less than $2^n$. Thus, we must have, setting $k=pi(2^n)$:
              $${n+pi(2^n)choose n}geq 2^n.$$
              That's a pretty painless proof.





              Okay, let's do the painful bit of showing that this is a logarithmic bound. This is, unfortunately, using harder tools than were required to derive the bound in the first place. It basically reduces to figuring out that there is some $alpha$ such that the minimal $pi(2^n)geq alpha n$ for large enough $n$. To do so, consider the value $${(alpha+1)n choose n}=frac{((alpha+1)n)!}{n!(alpha n)!}$$ where we slightly abuse notation in assuming the relevant terms are integers. Since we're going to use an asymptotic approximation, this does not really matter. Using Stirling's approximation that $n!sim sqrt{2pi n}(n/e)^n$ on every factorial gives
              $${(alpha+1)n choose n}sim frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot frac{((alpha+1)n/e)^{(alpha+1)n}}{(n/e)^n(alpha n/e)^{alpha n}}=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot left(frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}right)^n$$
              What should be clear is that this function is eventually bounded by $frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}$, meaning that expression must be at least two. Numerically, this gives $alphageq .2938ldots$. For the minimal possible $alpha$ given by this inequality, we would get
              $$pi(2^n)geq alpha n$$
              for big enough $n$. This suffices to establish a logarithmic lower bound on the prime counting function.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                7












                $begingroup$

                Given $k$ primes $p_1,ldots,p_k$, let us calculate the number of products of these primes below some threshold $2^n$. That is, ask how many choices of exponents $a_iin mathbb N$ satisfy:
                $$p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}ldots p_k^{a_k}leq 2^n.$$
                Since every prime is at least $2$, we get that this statement implies
                $$2^{a_1+a_2+ldots+a_k}leq 2^n$$
                $$a_1+a_2+ldots+a_kleq n.$$
                A stars and bars argument establishes that the number of tuples $(a_1,ldots,a_k)$ satisfying this is ${n+kchoose n}$. There are $2^n$ integers in the interval $[1,2^n]$ and each can be written as a product of primes less than $2^n$. Thus, we must have, setting $k=pi(2^n)$:
                $${n+pi(2^n)choose n}geq 2^n.$$
                That's a pretty painless proof.





                Okay, let's do the painful bit of showing that this is a logarithmic bound. This is, unfortunately, using harder tools than were required to derive the bound in the first place. It basically reduces to figuring out that there is some $alpha$ such that the minimal $pi(2^n)geq alpha n$ for large enough $n$. To do so, consider the value $${(alpha+1)n choose n}=frac{((alpha+1)n)!}{n!(alpha n)!}$$ where we slightly abuse notation in assuming the relevant terms are integers. Since we're going to use an asymptotic approximation, this does not really matter. Using Stirling's approximation that $n!sim sqrt{2pi n}(n/e)^n$ on every factorial gives
                $${(alpha+1)n choose n}sim frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot frac{((alpha+1)n/e)^{(alpha+1)n}}{(n/e)^n(alpha n/e)^{alpha n}}=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot left(frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}right)^n$$
                What should be clear is that this function is eventually bounded by $frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}$, meaning that expression must be at least two. Numerically, this gives $alphageq .2938ldots$. For the minimal possible $alpha$ given by this inequality, we would get
                $$pi(2^n)geq alpha n$$
                for big enough $n$. This suffices to establish a logarithmic lower bound on the prime counting function.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  7












                  7








                  7





                  $begingroup$

                  Given $k$ primes $p_1,ldots,p_k$, let us calculate the number of products of these primes below some threshold $2^n$. That is, ask how many choices of exponents $a_iin mathbb N$ satisfy:
                  $$p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}ldots p_k^{a_k}leq 2^n.$$
                  Since every prime is at least $2$, we get that this statement implies
                  $$2^{a_1+a_2+ldots+a_k}leq 2^n$$
                  $$a_1+a_2+ldots+a_kleq n.$$
                  A stars and bars argument establishes that the number of tuples $(a_1,ldots,a_k)$ satisfying this is ${n+kchoose n}$. There are $2^n$ integers in the interval $[1,2^n]$ and each can be written as a product of primes less than $2^n$. Thus, we must have, setting $k=pi(2^n)$:
                  $${n+pi(2^n)choose n}geq 2^n.$$
                  That's a pretty painless proof.





                  Okay, let's do the painful bit of showing that this is a logarithmic bound. This is, unfortunately, using harder tools than were required to derive the bound in the first place. It basically reduces to figuring out that there is some $alpha$ such that the minimal $pi(2^n)geq alpha n$ for large enough $n$. To do so, consider the value $${(alpha+1)n choose n}=frac{((alpha+1)n)!}{n!(alpha n)!}$$ where we slightly abuse notation in assuming the relevant terms are integers. Since we're going to use an asymptotic approximation, this does not really matter. Using Stirling's approximation that $n!sim sqrt{2pi n}(n/e)^n$ on every factorial gives
                  $${(alpha+1)n choose n}sim frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot frac{((alpha+1)n/e)^{(alpha+1)n}}{(n/e)^n(alpha n/e)^{alpha n}}=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot left(frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}right)^n$$
                  What should be clear is that this function is eventually bounded by $frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}$, meaning that expression must be at least two. Numerically, this gives $alphageq .2938ldots$. For the minimal possible $alpha$ given by this inequality, we would get
                  $$pi(2^n)geq alpha n$$
                  for big enough $n$. This suffices to establish a logarithmic lower bound on the prime counting function.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Given $k$ primes $p_1,ldots,p_k$, let us calculate the number of products of these primes below some threshold $2^n$. That is, ask how many choices of exponents $a_iin mathbb N$ satisfy:
                  $$p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}ldots p_k^{a_k}leq 2^n.$$
                  Since every prime is at least $2$, we get that this statement implies
                  $$2^{a_1+a_2+ldots+a_k}leq 2^n$$
                  $$a_1+a_2+ldots+a_kleq n.$$
                  A stars and bars argument establishes that the number of tuples $(a_1,ldots,a_k)$ satisfying this is ${n+kchoose n}$. There are $2^n$ integers in the interval $[1,2^n]$ and each can be written as a product of primes less than $2^n$. Thus, we must have, setting $k=pi(2^n)$:
                  $${n+pi(2^n)choose n}geq 2^n.$$
                  That's a pretty painless proof.





                  Okay, let's do the painful bit of showing that this is a logarithmic bound. This is, unfortunately, using harder tools than were required to derive the bound in the first place. It basically reduces to figuring out that there is some $alpha$ such that the minimal $pi(2^n)geq alpha n$ for large enough $n$. To do so, consider the value $${(alpha+1)n choose n}=frac{((alpha+1)n)!}{n!(alpha n)!}$$ where we slightly abuse notation in assuming the relevant terms are integers. Since we're going to use an asymptotic approximation, this does not really matter. Using Stirling's approximation that $n!sim sqrt{2pi n}(n/e)^n$ on every factorial gives
                  $${(alpha+1)n choose n}sim frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot frac{((alpha+1)n/e)^{(alpha+1)n}}{(n/e)^n(alpha n/e)^{alpha n}}=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi n}}cdot frac{sqrt{alpha+1}}{sqrt{alpha}}cdot left(frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}right)^n$$
                  What should be clear is that this function is eventually bounded by $frac{(alpha+1)^{alpha+1}}{alpha^{alpha}}$, meaning that expression must be at least two. Numerically, this gives $alphageq .2938ldots$. For the minimal possible $alpha$ given by this inequality, we would get
                  $$pi(2^n)geq alpha n$$
                  for big enough $n$. This suffices to establish a logarithmic lower bound on the prime counting function.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 13 '16 at 4:15

























                  answered Aug 13 '16 at 3:41









                  Milo BrandtMilo Brandt

                  39.8k476140




                  39.8k476140























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Here is an answer that uses the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Let $pi(n)$ be the number of primes less than or equal to $n$. For each natural $k$ less than $n$, the exponent of the primes in the prime factorization of $k$ can be at most $log_2(n)$.



                      Since there are $pi(n)$ total primes that can be used in the prime factorization of $k$, we have



                      $$(log_2(n) + 1)^{pi(n)} ge n implies pi(n) ge frac{log(n)}{log(log_2(n) + 1)} approx frac{log(n)}{log log(n)}.$$



                      Interestingly, exponentiating this bound gives you the PNT.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Sonk
                        Oct 23 '16 at 15:26


















                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Here is an answer that uses the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Let $pi(n)$ be the number of primes less than or equal to $n$. For each natural $k$ less than $n$, the exponent of the primes in the prime factorization of $k$ can be at most $log_2(n)$.



                      Since there are $pi(n)$ total primes that can be used in the prime factorization of $k$, we have



                      $$(log_2(n) + 1)^{pi(n)} ge n implies pi(n) ge frac{log(n)}{log(log_2(n) + 1)} approx frac{log(n)}{log log(n)}.$$



                      Interestingly, exponentiating this bound gives you the PNT.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Sonk
                        Oct 23 '16 at 15:26
















                      2












                      2








                      2





                      $begingroup$

                      Here is an answer that uses the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Let $pi(n)$ be the number of primes less than or equal to $n$. For each natural $k$ less than $n$, the exponent of the primes in the prime factorization of $k$ can be at most $log_2(n)$.



                      Since there are $pi(n)$ total primes that can be used in the prime factorization of $k$, we have



                      $$(log_2(n) + 1)^{pi(n)} ge n implies pi(n) ge frac{log(n)}{log(log_2(n) + 1)} approx frac{log(n)}{log log(n)}.$$



                      Interestingly, exponentiating this bound gives you the PNT.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Here is an answer that uses the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Let $pi(n)$ be the number of primes less than or equal to $n$. For each natural $k$ less than $n$, the exponent of the primes in the prime factorization of $k$ can be at most $log_2(n)$.



                      Since there are $pi(n)$ total primes that can be used in the prime factorization of $k$, we have



                      $$(log_2(n) + 1)^{pi(n)} ge n implies pi(n) ge frac{log(n)}{log(log_2(n) + 1)} approx frac{log(n)}{log log(n)}.$$



                      Interestingly, exponentiating this bound gives you the PNT.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Aug 14 '16 at 16:12









                      Sandeep SilwalSandeep Silwal

                      5,86811237




                      5,86811237












                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Sonk
                        Oct 23 '16 at 15:26




















                      • $begingroup$
                        Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Sonk
                        Oct 23 '16 at 15:26


















                      $begingroup$
                      Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Sonk
                      Oct 23 '16 at 15:26






                      $begingroup$
                      Hi, could you explain the jump from "since there are $pi(n)$ total primes [...]" to $(log_2(n) +1)^{pi (n)}geq n?$ Sorry, I'm sure it's simple I just can't see it right now.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Sonk
                      Oct 23 '16 at 15:26







                      protected by Saad Dec 13 '18 at 16:27



                      Thank you for your interest in this question.
                      Because it has attracted low-quality or spam answers that had to be removed, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site (the association bonus does not count).



                      Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?



                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Wiesbaden

                      Marschland

                      Dieringhausen