Show $[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 - int_0^t (B_{2,s})^2 ds$ is a martingale











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I want to show the following:




$$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 - int_0^t (B_{2,s})^2 ds$$ is a martingale where $ (B_{2,s},B_{1,s}) $ is a two dim'l Brownian motion.




My attempt:
By Ito formula, $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 =2 int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u} + int_0^t (B_{2,u})^2 du$$
so it suffices to show
$ int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u}$ is a martingale. I tried to show the integral of the expectation of the square of the integrand is finite, but it gets me nowhere.



Any help is appreciated.










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    I want to show the following:




    $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 - int_0^t (B_{2,s})^2 ds$$ is a martingale where $ (B_{2,s},B_{1,s}) $ is a two dim'l Brownian motion.




    My attempt:
    By Ito formula, $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 =2 int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u} + int_0^t (B_{2,u})^2 du$$
    so it suffices to show
    $ int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u}$ is a martingale. I tried to show the integral of the expectation of the square of the integrand is finite, but it gets me nowhere.



    Any help is appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I want to show the following:




      $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 - int_0^t (B_{2,s})^2 ds$$ is a martingale where $ (B_{2,s},B_{1,s}) $ is a two dim'l Brownian motion.




      My attempt:
      By Ito formula, $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 =2 int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u} + int_0^t (B_{2,u})^2 du$$
      so it suffices to show
      $ int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u}$ is a martingale. I tried to show the integral of the expectation of the square of the integrand is finite, but it gets me nowhere.



      Any help is appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I want to show the following:




      $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 - int_0^t (B_{2,s})^2 ds$$ is a martingale where $ (B_{2,s},B_{1,s}) $ is a two dim'l Brownian motion.




      My attempt:
      By Ito formula, $$[int _0 ^t B_{2,s} dB_{1,s}]^2 =2 int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u} + int_0^t (B_{2,u})^2 du$$
      so it suffices to show
      $ int_0^t (int_0^u B_{2,s} dB_{1,s} )B_{2,u} dB_{1,u}$ is a martingale. I tried to show the integral of the expectation of the square of the integrand is finite, but it gets me nowhere.



      Any help is appreciated.







      stochastic-calculus brownian-motion martingales local-martingales






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      asked Nov 20 at 1:55









      izimath

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          Hint: Note that $$int_0^t B_{2,s}dB_{1,s}$$ is an $L^2$-martingale since $E[int_0^t |B_{2,s}|^2ds] = int_0^t E|B_{2,s}|^2ds <infty$.



          And observe that its quadratic variatio process is $int_0^t B_{2,s}^2ds$. It follows the given process is a continuous martingale.






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            Hint: Note that $$int_0^t B_{2,s}dB_{1,s}$$ is an $L^2$-martingale since $E[int_0^t |B_{2,s}|^2ds] = int_0^t E|B_{2,s}|^2ds <infty$.



            And observe that its quadratic variatio process is $int_0^t B_{2,s}^2ds$. It follows the given process is a continuous martingale.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
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              down vote













              Hint: Note that $$int_0^t B_{2,s}dB_{1,s}$$ is an $L^2$-martingale since $E[int_0^t |B_{2,s}|^2ds] = int_0^t E|B_{2,s}|^2ds <infty$.



              And observe that its quadratic variatio process is $int_0^t B_{2,s}^2ds$. It follows the given process is a continuous martingale.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Hint: Note that $$int_0^t B_{2,s}dB_{1,s}$$ is an $L^2$-martingale since $E[int_0^t |B_{2,s}|^2ds] = int_0^t E|B_{2,s}|^2ds <infty$.



                And observe that its quadratic variatio process is $int_0^t B_{2,s}^2ds$. It follows the given process is a continuous martingale.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Hint: Note that $$int_0^t B_{2,s}dB_{1,s}$$ is an $L^2$-martingale since $E[int_0^t |B_{2,s}|^2ds] = int_0^t E|B_{2,s}|^2ds <infty$.



                And observe that its quadratic variatio process is $int_0^t B_{2,s}^2ds$. It follows the given process is a continuous martingale.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 20 at 5:05









                Song

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