What is the orthogonal complement of $H^1_0$ in $H^1$?
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
Let $Omega$ be a closed domain with smooth boundary in $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $H^1_0(Omega)$ be the closure of compactly supported smooth functions under the norm $|u|_1 = int_Omega u^2 + |nabla u|^2 dx$ and let $H^1(Omega)$ be the closure of smooth, continuous functions under the same norm.
Any $H^1$ function which has nonvanishing trace cannot be approximated by any sequence of functions in $H^1_0$. So $H^1_0$ is a closed subspace of the Hilbert space $(H^1, |cdot|_1)$, hence has an orthogonal complement.
What is a generating set of the orthogonal complement of $H^1_0$ in $H^1$?
Motivation is to get my hands on some concrete examples, rather than to just appeal to theorems that establish the existence of a right inverse to a trace operator.
Of course if anyone has references, I'm happy to follow them up. I've skimmed through Gilbarg-Trudinger and Evans and found nothing, but maybe I'm looking in the wrong place.
functional-analysis sobolev-spaces trace
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
Let $Omega$ be a closed domain with smooth boundary in $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $H^1_0(Omega)$ be the closure of compactly supported smooth functions under the norm $|u|_1 = int_Omega u^2 + |nabla u|^2 dx$ and let $H^1(Omega)$ be the closure of smooth, continuous functions under the same norm.
Any $H^1$ function which has nonvanishing trace cannot be approximated by any sequence of functions in $H^1_0$. So $H^1_0$ is a closed subspace of the Hilbert space $(H^1, |cdot|_1)$, hence has an orthogonal complement.
What is a generating set of the orthogonal complement of $H^1_0$ in $H^1$?
Motivation is to get my hands on some concrete examples, rather than to just appeal to theorems that establish the existence of a right inverse to a trace operator.
Of course if anyone has references, I'm happy to follow them up. I've skimmed through Gilbarg-Trudinger and Evans and found nothing, but maybe I'm looking in the wrong place.
functional-analysis sobolev-spaces trace
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
Let $Omega$ be a closed domain with smooth boundary in $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $H^1_0(Omega)$ be the closure of compactly supported smooth functions under the norm $|u|_1 = int_Omega u^2 + |nabla u|^2 dx$ and let $H^1(Omega)$ be the closure of smooth, continuous functions under the same norm.
Any $H^1$ function which has nonvanishing trace cannot be approximated by any sequence of functions in $H^1_0$. So $H^1_0$ is a closed subspace of the Hilbert space $(H^1, |cdot|_1)$, hence has an orthogonal complement.
What is a generating set of the orthogonal complement of $H^1_0$ in $H^1$?
Motivation is to get my hands on some concrete examples, rather than to just appeal to theorems that establish the existence of a right inverse to a trace operator.
Of course if anyone has references, I'm happy to follow them up. I've skimmed through Gilbarg-Trudinger and Evans and found nothing, but maybe I'm looking in the wrong place.
functional-analysis sobolev-spaces trace
Let $Omega$ be a closed domain with smooth boundary in $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $H^1_0(Omega)$ be the closure of compactly supported smooth functions under the norm $|u|_1 = int_Omega u^2 + |nabla u|^2 dx$ and let $H^1(Omega)$ be the closure of smooth, continuous functions under the same norm.
Any $H^1$ function which has nonvanishing trace cannot be approximated by any sequence of functions in $H^1_0$. So $H^1_0$ is a closed subspace of the Hilbert space $(H^1, |cdot|_1)$, hence has an orthogonal complement.
What is a generating set of the orthogonal complement of $H^1_0$ in $H^1$?
Motivation is to get my hands on some concrete examples, rather than to just appeal to theorems that establish the existence of a right inverse to a trace operator.
Of course if anyone has references, I'm happy to follow them up. I've skimmed through Gilbarg-Trudinger and Evans and found nothing, but maybe I'm looking in the wrong place.
functional-analysis sobolev-spaces trace
functional-analysis sobolev-spaces trace
asked Nov 20 at 1:34
Neal
23.3k23582
23.3k23582
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago
add a comment |
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
As reuns has stated in the comments, the answer depends on the inner product you choose in $H^1(Omega)$.
Let us fix the most common choice
$$
(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = int_Omega nabla u cdot nabla v + u , v , mathrm{d}x.$$
In this case,
the orthogonal complement of $H_0^1(Omega)$ consists precisely
of the (weak) solutions $u in H^1(Omega)$ of
$$ -Delta u + u = 0$$
(without B.C.). Indeed, the weak formulation of this PDE is
$$(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = 0 quadforall v in H_0^1(Omega).$$
For different inner products, you get different PDEs.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
As reuns has stated in the comments, the answer depends on the inner product you choose in $H^1(Omega)$.
Let us fix the most common choice
$$
(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = int_Omega nabla u cdot nabla v + u , v , mathrm{d}x.$$
In this case,
the orthogonal complement of $H_0^1(Omega)$ consists precisely
of the (weak) solutions $u in H^1(Omega)$ of
$$ -Delta u + u = 0$$
(without B.C.). Indeed, the weak formulation of this PDE is
$$(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = 0 quadforall v in H_0^1(Omega).$$
For different inner products, you get different PDEs.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
As reuns has stated in the comments, the answer depends on the inner product you choose in $H^1(Omega)$.
Let us fix the most common choice
$$
(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = int_Omega nabla u cdot nabla v + u , v , mathrm{d}x.$$
In this case,
the orthogonal complement of $H_0^1(Omega)$ consists precisely
of the (weak) solutions $u in H^1(Omega)$ of
$$ -Delta u + u = 0$$
(without B.C.). Indeed, the weak formulation of this PDE is
$$(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = 0 quadforall v in H_0^1(Omega).$$
For different inner products, you get different PDEs.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
As reuns has stated in the comments, the answer depends on the inner product you choose in $H^1(Omega)$.
Let us fix the most common choice
$$
(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = int_Omega nabla u cdot nabla v + u , v , mathrm{d}x.$$
In this case,
the orthogonal complement of $H_0^1(Omega)$ consists precisely
of the (weak) solutions $u in H^1(Omega)$ of
$$ -Delta u + u = 0$$
(without B.C.). Indeed, the weak formulation of this PDE is
$$(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = 0 quadforall v in H_0^1(Omega).$$
For different inner products, you get different PDEs.
As reuns has stated in the comments, the answer depends on the inner product you choose in $H^1(Omega)$.
Let us fix the most common choice
$$
(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = int_Omega nabla u cdot nabla v + u , v , mathrm{d}x.$$
In this case,
the orthogonal complement of $H_0^1(Omega)$ consists precisely
of the (weak) solutions $u in H^1(Omega)$ of
$$ -Delta u + u = 0$$
(without B.C.). Indeed, the weak formulation of this PDE is
$$(u,v)_{H^1(Omega)} = 0 quadforall v in H_0^1(Omega).$$
For different inner products, you get different PDEs.
answered 2 days ago
gerw
18.7k11133
18.7k11133
add a comment |
add a comment |
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3005808%2fwhat-is-the-orthogonal-complement-of-h1-0-in-h1%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
For $H^1([0,1])$, say $langle f,g rangle_{H^1([0,1])} = f(0)overline{g(0)}+f(1)overline{g(1)}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$. $H^1_0([0,1]) = { f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=0}={ f in H^1([0,1]),f(0) = f(1)=langle f',1 rangle_{L^2([0,1])}=0}$ so the orthogonal complement is ${a+bx}$. When changing the inner product (for say $(f,g ) = langle f,g rangle_{L^2([0,1])}+langle f',g' rangle_{L^2([0,1])}$) the orthogonal complement becomes ${a phi_1+b phi_2}$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 1:54
@reuns surely there is a condition on $a,b$? With $f(x) = begin{cases}x, & x < frac{1}{2}\ 1-x, & x geq frac{1}{2}end{cases}$ and $g(x) = a + bx$ I compute $langle f, grangle_{H^1([0,1])} = frac{1}{4}a + frac{1}{8}b$ which is not always zero
– Neal
Nov 20 at 2:04
That's why I gave two different inner products, only for the first one the orthogonal complement has an obvious basis, for the other inner product, I'd say we should substract to $1$ and $x$ their projection on the trigonometric orthogonal basis of $H^1_0$
– reuns
Nov 20 at 2:13
@reuns Ah, I see, thank you. Your comments make good sense. (I would note that I specified the inner product in the question.)
– Neal
2 days ago