A Basic Question about Integrals
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I have a basic question about integrals. Suppose that $f: [0,1] mapsto mathbb{R}$ is a bounded function. Do not assume that $f$ is continuous. For each $n geq 1$, define $f_n: [0,1]mapsto mathbb{R}$ by:
$$f_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}} f(y) dy ~mathbf{1}left(frac{j-1}{n}< x leq frac{j}{n}right)~.$$
$f_n$ may be thought of as an $n-$step piecewise approximation of $f$. My question is:
Is it true that $int_0^1|f_n(x)-f(x)| dx rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$? Also, does this answer depend on whether the integrals in question are Riemann or they are Lebesgue (in the sense of integration w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure)?
Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.
lebesgue-integral riemann-integration
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up vote
3
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I have a basic question about integrals. Suppose that $f: [0,1] mapsto mathbb{R}$ is a bounded function. Do not assume that $f$ is continuous. For each $n geq 1$, define $f_n: [0,1]mapsto mathbb{R}$ by:
$$f_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}} f(y) dy ~mathbf{1}left(frac{j-1}{n}< x leq frac{j}{n}right)~.$$
$f_n$ may be thought of as an $n-$step piecewise approximation of $f$. My question is:
Is it true that $int_0^1|f_n(x)-f(x)| dx rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$? Also, does this answer depend on whether the integrals in question are Riemann or they are Lebesgue (in the sense of integration w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure)?
Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.
lebesgue-integral riemann-integration
The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I have a basic question about integrals. Suppose that $f: [0,1] mapsto mathbb{R}$ is a bounded function. Do not assume that $f$ is continuous. For each $n geq 1$, define $f_n: [0,1]mapsto mathbb{R}$ by:
$$f_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}} f(y) dy ~mathbf{1}left(frac{j-1}{n}< x leq frac{j}{n}right)~.$$
$f_n$ may be thought of as an $n-$step piecewise approximation of $f$. My question is:
Is it true that $int_0^1|f_n(x)-f(x)| dx rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$? Also, does this answer depend on whether the integrals in question are Riemann or they are Lebesgue (in the sense of integration w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure)?
Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.
lebesgue-integral riemann-integration
I have a basic question about integrals. Suppose that $f: [0,1] mapsto mathbb{R}$ is a bounded function. Do not assume that $f$ is continuous. For each $n geq 1$, define $f_n: [0,1]mapsto mathbb{R}$ by:
$$f_n(x) = sum_{j=1}^n nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}} f(y) dy ~mathbf{1}left(frac{j-1}{n}< x leq frac{j}{n}right)~.$$
$f_n$ may be thought of as an $n-$step piecewise approximation of $f$. My question is:
Is it true that $int_0^1|f_n(x)-f(x)| dx rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$? Also, does this answer depend on whether the integrals in question are Riemann or they are Lebesgue (in the sense of integration w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure)?
Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.
lebesgue-integral riemann-integration
lebesgue-integral riemann-integration
asked Nov 24 at 17:37
abcd
817
817
The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25
add a comment |
The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25
The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25
add a comment |
1 Answer
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This reduces for a bounded Riemann integrable function to
$$begin{align}int_0^1 |f(x) - f_n(x)| , dx &= sum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|f(x) - nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right| , dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|frac{f(x)}{n} - int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right|, dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}[f(x) - f(y)] , dy right|,dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}|f(x) - f(y)| , dy , dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n frac{sup_{x,y in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} |f(x) - f(y)|}{n^2} \ &= frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n sup_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) - frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n inf_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) end{align}$$
The RHS is a difference of upper and lower sums which converges to $0$ as $n to infty$.
The steps leading to the final difference of sums are valid if $f$ is bounded and Lebesgue integrable. I'll leave it to you to determine if the limit is always $0$ in case $f$ is Lebesgue but not Riemann integrable. Can you think of a counterexample?
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
This reduces for a bounded Riemann integrable function to
$$begin{align}int_0^1 |f(x) - f_n(x)| , dx &= sum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|f(x) - nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right| , dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|frac{f(x)}{n} - int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right|, dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}[f(x) - f(y)] , dy right|,dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}|f(x) - f(y)| , dy , dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n frac{sup_{x,y in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} |f(x) - f(y)|}{n^2} \ &= frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n sup_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) - frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n inf_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) end{align}$$
The RHS is a difference of upper and lower sums which converges to $0$ as $n to infty$.
The steps leading to the final difference of sums are valid if $f$ is bounded and Lebesgue integrable. I'll leave it to you to determine if the limit is always $0$ in case $f$ is Lebesgue but not Riemann integrable. Can you think of a counterexample?
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
This reduces for a bounded Riemann integrable function to
$$begin{align}int_0^1 |f(x) - f_n(x)| , dx &= sum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|f(x) - nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right| , dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|frac{f(x)}{n} - int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right|, dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}[f(x) - f(y)] , dy right|,dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}|f(x) - f(y)| , dy , dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n frac{sup_{x,y in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} |f(x) - f(y)|}{n^2} \ &= frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n sup_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) - frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n inf_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) end{align}$$
The RHS is a difference of upper and lower sums which converges to $0$ as $n to infty$.
The steps leading to the final difference of sums are valid if $f$ is bounded and Lebesgue integrable. I'll leave it to you to determine if the limit is always $0$ in case $f$ is Lebesgue but not Riemann integrable. Can you think of a counterexample?
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
This reduces for a bounded Riemann integrable function to
$$begin{align}int_0^1 |f(x) - f_n(x)| , dx &= sum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|f(x) - nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right| , dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|frac{f(x)}{n} - int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right|, dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}[f(x) - f(y)] , dy right|,dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}|f(x) - f(y)| , dy , dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n frac{sup_{x,y in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} |f(x) - f(y)|}{n^2} \ &= frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n sup_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) - frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n inf_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) end{align}$$
The RHS is a difference of upper and lower sums which converges to $0$ as $n to infty$.
The steps leading to the final difference of sums are valid if $f$ is bounded and Lebesgue integrable. I'll leave it to you to determine if the limit is always $0$ in case $f$ is Lebesgue but not Riemann integrable. Can you think of a counterexample?
This reduces for a bounded Riemann integrable function to
$$begin{align}int_0^1 |f(x) - f_n(x)| , dx &= sum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|f(x) - nint_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right| , dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|frac{f(x)}{n} - int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}f(y) , dy right|, dx \ &= nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}left|int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}[f(x) - f(y)] , dy right|,dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}int_{frac{j-1}{n}}^{frac{j}{n}}|f(x) - f(y)| , dy , dx \ &leqslant nsum_{j=1}^n frac{sup_{x,y in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} |f(x) - f(y)|}{n^2} \ &= frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n sup_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) - frac{1}{n}sum_{j=1}^n inf_{x in left[frac{j-1}{n},frac{j}{n}right]} f(x) end{align}$$
The RHS is a difference of upper and lower sums which converges to $0$ as $n to infty$.
The steps leading to the final difference of sums are valid if $f$ is bounded and Lebesgue integrable. I'll leave it to you to determine if the limit is always $0$ in case $f$ is Lebesgue but not Riemann integrable. Can you think of a counterexample?
edited Nov 25 at 7:34
answered Nov 25 at 7:10
RRL
47.8k42370
47.8k42370
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The equation for $f_n(x)$ is very confusing. j is a dummy index, so the term with $x$ on the right is hard to understand.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 18:53
@herb steinberg, when $x in ((j-1)/n,j/n]$ $(1leq jleq n)$, $f_n(x) = n int_{(j-1)/n}^{j/n} f$. Hence, $f_n$ is a step function.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:27
And in my original post, everything (including the term in the left with the $x$ is inside the summation.
– abcd
Nov 24 at 19:28
If it is Riemann integrable, using Darboux approach will give you what you need, since the upper and lower Darboux sums will bracket $f_n(x)$.
– herb steinberg
Nov 24 at 22:25