Finding convergence of integral $int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx$











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Test the convergence $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx$$



I have used comparison test for improper integrals..by comparing with $1/(1+x)$...
so I found it convergent ..
But the solution set says that it is convergent if $n> -1$.










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    Test the convergence $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx$$



    I have used comparison test for improper integrals..by comparing with $1/(1+x)$...
    so I found it convergent ..
    But the solution set says that it is convergent if $n> -1$.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Test the convergence $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx$$



      I have used comparison test for improper integrals..by comparing with $1/(1+x)$...
      so I found it convergent ..
      But the solution set says that it is convergent if $n> -1$.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Test the convergence $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx$$



      I have used comparison test for improper integrals..by comparing with $1/(1+x)$...
      so I found it convergent ..
      But the solution set says that it is convergent if $n> -1$.







      calculus






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      edited Nov 24 at 18:05









      gimusi

      90.7k74495




      90.7k74495










      asked Nov 24 at 17:58









      Kashmira

      163




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          3 Answers
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          We have that for $nge 0$ the integral is a proper integral, then consider $n<0$ and by $m=-n>0$ we have



          $$int_0^1 frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}}dx$$



          and since as $xto 0^+$



          $$frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}} sim frac{1}{x^m}$$



          the integral converges for $m<1$ that is $n>-1$.



          As an alternative by $y=frac1x$ we have



          $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx=int_1^infty frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}dx$$



          and since as $xto infty$



          $$ frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}sim frac{1}{y^{n+2}}$$



          the integral converges for $n+2>1$ that is $n>-1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            Let $a_n = displaystyle int_{0}^1 dfrac{x^n}{1+x}dx$. Since $dfrac{x^n}{1+x} = x^{n-1}left(1-dfrac{1}{1+x}right)=x^{n-1}-dfrac{x^{n-1}}{1+x}$, taking the integral $displaystyle int_{0}^1$ both sides give: $a_n = dfrac{1}{n}- a_{n-1}=dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+a_{n-2}= dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n-2}-a_{n-3}=...=-ln 2+ 1-dfrac{1}{2}+dfrac{1}{3}-dfrac{1}{4}+dfrac{1}{5}-dfrac{1}{6}+cdots + dfrac{1}{n-2}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n}$. $a_n$ converges when considered as a partial sum of an alternating harmonic series.






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              Since $x^n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ for $nge 0,$ the integral converges for $nge 0.$



              For $n<0,$ $x^n$ blows up at $0.$ So we need to consider the integral over $[a,1]$ for small $a>0.$ Notice that for $xin (0,1],$



              $$frac{x^n}{2}le frac{x^n}{1+x} le x^n.$$



              It follows that the integral of interest converges iff $int_0^1 x^n,dx $ converges. Things are easy now, so I'll stop here. Ask questions if you like.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















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                3 Answers
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                active

                oldest

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                3 Answers
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                active

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                active

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                active

                oldest

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                up vote
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                We have that for $nge 0$ the integral is a proper integral, then consider $n<0$ and by $m=-n>0$ we have



                $$int_0^1 frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}}dx$$



                and since as $xto 0^+$



                $$frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}} sim frac{1}{x^m}$$



                the integral converges for $m<1$ that is $n>-1$.



                As an alternative by $y=frac1x$ we have



                $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx=int_1^infty frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}dx$$



                and since as $xto infty$



                $$ frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}sim frac{1}{y^{n+2}}$$



                the integral converges for $n+2>1$ that is $n>-1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  We have that for $nge 0$ the integral is a proper integral, then consider $n<0$ and by $m=-n>0$ we have



                  $$int_0^1 frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}}dx$$



                  and since as $xto 0^+$



                  $$frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}} sim frac{1}{x^m}$$



                  the integral converges for $m<1$ that is $n>-1$.



                  As an alternative by $y=frac1x$ we have



                  $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx=int_1^infty frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}dx$$



                  and since as $xto infty$



                  $$ frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}sim frac{1}{y^{n+2}}$$



                  the integral converges for $n+2>1$ that is $n>-1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    We have that for $nge 0$ the integral is a proper integral, then consider $n<0$ and by $m=-n>0$ we have



                    $$int_0^1 frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}}dx$$



                    and since as $xto 0^+$



                    $$frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}} sim frac{1}{x^m}$$



                    the integral converges for $m<1$ that is $n>-1$.



                    As an alternative by $y=frac1x$ we have



                    $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx=int_1^infty frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}dx$$



                    and since as $xto infty$



                    $$ frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}sim frac{1}{y^{n+2}}$$



                    the integral converges for $n+2>1$ that is $n>-1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    We have that for $nge 0$ the integral is a proper integral, then consider $n<0$ and by $m=-n>0$ we have



                    $$int_0^1 frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}}dx$$



                    and since as $xto 0^+$



                    $$frac{1}{x^m+x^{m+1}} sim frac{1}{x^m}$$



                    the integral converges for $m<1$ that is $n>-1$.



                    As an alternative by $y=frac1x$ we have



                    $$int_0^1 frac{x^n}{1+x}dx=int_1^infty frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}dx$$



                    and since as $xto infty$



                    $$ frac{1}{y^{n+1}+y^{n+2}}sim frac{1}{y^{n+2}}$$



                    the integral converges for $n+2>1$ that is $n>-1$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 24 at 18:05









                    gimusi

                    90.7k74495




                    90.7k74495






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Let $a_n = displaystyle int_{0}^1 dfrac{x^n}{1+x}dx$. Since $dfrac{x^n}{1+x} = x^{n-1}left(1-dfrac{1}{1+x}right)=x^{n-1}-dfrac{x^{n-1}}{1+x}$, taking the integral $displaystyle int_{0}^1$ both sides give: $a_n = dfrac{1}{n}- a_{n-1}=dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+a_{n-2}= dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n-2}-a_{n-3}=...=-ln 2+ 1-dfrac{1}{2}+dfrac{1}{3}-dfrac{1}{4}+dfrac{1}{5}-dfrac{1}{6}+cdots + dfrac{1}{n-2}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n}$. $a_n$ converges when considered as a partial sum of an alternating harmonic series.






                        share|cite|improve this answer



























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Let $a_n = displaystyle int_{0}^1 dfrac{x^n}{1+x}dx$. Since $dfrac{x^n}{1+x} = x^{n-1}left(1-dfrac{1}{1+x}right)=x^{n-1}-dfrac{x^{n-1}}{1+x}$, taking the integral $displaystyle int_{0}^1$ both sides give: $a_n = dfrac{1}{n}- a_{n-1}=dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+a_{n-2}= dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n-2}-a_{n-3}=...=-ln 2+ 1-dfrac{1}{2}+dfrac{1}{3}-dfrac{1}{4}+dfrac{1}{5}-dfrac{1}{6}+cdots + dfrac{1}{n-2}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n}$. $a_n$ converges when considered as a partial sum of an alternating harmonic series.






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Let $a_n = displaystyle int_{0}^1 dfrac{x^n}{1+x}dx$. Since $dfrac{x^n}{1+x} = x^{n-1}left(1-dfrac{1}{1+x}right)=x^{n-1}-dfrac{x^{n-1}}{1+x}$, taking the integral $displaystyle int_{0}^1$ both sides give: $a_n = dfrac{1}{n}- a_{n-1}=dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+a_{n-2}= dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n-2}-a_{n-3}=...=-ln 2+ 1-dfrac{1}{2}+dfrac{1}{3}-dfrac{1}{4}+dfrac{1}{5}-dfrac{1}{6}+cdots + dfrac{1}{n-2}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n}$. $a_n$ converges when considered as a partial sum of an alternating harmonic series.






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            Let $a_n = displaystyle int_{0}^1 dfrac{x^n}{1+x}dx$. Since $dfrac{x^n}{1+x} = x^{n-1}left(1-dfrac{1}{1+x}right)=x^{n-1}-dfrac{x^{n-1}}{1+x}$, taking the integral $displaystyle int_{0}^1$ both sides give: $a_n = dfrac{1}{n}- a_{n-1}=dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+a_{n-2}= dfrac{1}{n}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n-2}-a_{n-3}=...=-ln 2+ 1-dfrac{1}{2}+dfrac{1}{3}-dfrac{1}{4}+dfrac{1}{5}-dfrac{1}{6}+cdots + dfrac{1}{n-2}-dfrac{1}{n-1}+dfrac{1}{n}$. $a_n$ converges when considered as a partial sum of an alternating harmonic series.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Nov 24 at 18:46

























                            answered Nov 24 at 18:24









                            DeepSea

                            70.6k54487




                            70.6k54487






















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Since $x^n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ for $nge 0,$ the integral converges for $nge 0.$



                                For $n<0,$ $x^n$ blows up at $0.$ So we need to consider the integral over $[a,1]$ for small $a>0.$ Notice that for $xin (0,1],$



                                $$frac{x^n}{2}le frac{x^n}{1+x} le x^n.$$



                                It follows that the integral of interest converges iff $int_0^1 x^n,dx $ converges. Things are easy now, so I'll stop here. Ask questions if you like.






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  Since $x^n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ for $nge 0,$ the integral converges for $nge 0.$



                                  For $n<0,$ $x^n$ blows up at $0.$ So we need to consider the integral over $[a,1]$ for small $a>0.$ Notice that for $xin (0,1],$



                                  $$frac{x^n}{2}le frac{x^n}{1+x} le x^n.$$



                                  It follows that the integral of interest converges iff $int_0^1 x^n,dx $ converges. Things are easy now, so I'll stop here. Ask questions if you like.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote









                                    Since $x^n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ for $nge 0,$ the integral converges for $nge 0.$



                                    For $n<0,$ $x^n$ blows up at $0.$ So we need to consider the integral over $[a,1]$ for small $a>0.$ Notice that for $xin (0,1],$



                                    $$frac{x^n}{2}le frac{x^n}{1+x} le x^n.$$



                                    It follows that the integral of interest converges iff $int_0^1 x^n,dx $ converges. Things are easy now, so I'll stop here. Ask questions if you like.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Since $x^n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ for $nge 0,$ the integral converges for $nge 0.$



                                    For $n<0,$ $x^n$ blows up at $0.$ So we need to consider the integral over $[a,1]$ for small $a>0.$ Notice that for $xin (0,1],$



                                    $$frac{x^n}{2}le frac{x^n}{1+x} le x^n.$$



                                    It follows that the integral of interest converges iff $int_0^1 x^n,dx $ converges. Things are easy now, so I'll stop here. Ask questions if you like.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Nov 24 at 19:04









                                    zhw.

                                    70.8k43075




                                    70.8k43075






























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