$ex leq e^x$ inequality using derivatives











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So I was going through a sum for



Prove $ex leq e^x$ , $forall x in mathbb{R} $



I took $g(x) = e^x - ex$



Then $g'(x)= e^x - e$



I understood the case when $x>1$ function is strictly increasing i.e $g'(x) >0$ then $e^x>ex$ but what about when $x leq 1$










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  • 3




    Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 24 at 16:32










  • Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
    – Andrei
    Nov 24 at 16:35












  • I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
    – Sumukh Sai
    Nov 24 at 16:45















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












So I was going through a sum for



Prove $ex leq e^x$ , $forall x in mathbb{R} $



I took $g(x) = e^x - ex$



Then $g'(x)= e^x - e$



I understood the case when $x>1$ function is strictly increasing i.e $g'(x) >0$ then $e^x>ex$ but what about when $x leq 1$










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 3




    Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 24 at 16:32










  • Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
    – Andrei
    Nov 24 at 16:35












  • I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
    – Sumukh Sai
    Nov 24 at 16:45













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











So I was going through a sum for



Prove $ex leq e^x$ , $forall x in mathbb{R} $



I took $g(x) = e^x - ex$



Then $g'(x)= e^x - e$



I understood the case when $x>1$ function is strictly increasing i.e $g'(x) >0$ then $e^x>ex$ but what about when $x leq 1$










share|cite|improve this question













So I was going through a sum for



Prove $ex leq e^x$ , $forall x in mathbb{R} $



I took $g(x) = e^x - ex$



Then $g'(x)= e^x - e$



I understood the case when $x>1$ function is strictly increasing i.e $g'(x) >0$ then $e^x>ex$ but what about when $x leq 1$







calculus






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 24 at 16:29









Sumukh Sai

206




206








  • 3




    Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 24 at 16:32










  • Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
    – Andrei
    Nov 24 at 16:35












  • I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
    – Sumukh Sai
    Nov 24 at 16:45














  • 3




    Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
    – saulspatz
    Nov 24 at 16:32










  • Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
    – Andrei
    Nov 24 at 16:35












  • I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
    – Sumukh Sai
    Nov 24 at 16:45








3




3




Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
– saulspatz
Nov 24 at 16:32




Then the function is decreasing. That's all you need. Think about it for a moment.
– saulspatz
Nov 24 at 16:32












Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
– Andrei
Nov 24 at 16:35






Just re-wording what @saulspatz says: what does it mean for a function to have only one minima or maxima? Write it as inequality
– Andrei
Nov 24 at 16:35














I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
– Sumukh Sai
Nov 24 at 16:45




I'm sorry I'm still getting a bit confused
– Sumukh Sai
Nov 24 at 16:45










2 Answers
2






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1
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accepted










it is easy to see $x=1$ is the absolute minimum, that is, $ f(1)leq f(x)$ for all $xin R$ so that $0leq ex-e^x$.Thus $exleq e^x$ for all $xin R.$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    We have that



    $$g(x)=e^x-ex implies g'(x)=e^x-e=0quad x=1$$



    moreover $g''(x)=e^x > 0$, therefore $x=1$ is a point of minimum for $g(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      active

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      active

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      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      it is easy to see $x=1$ is the absolute minimum, that is, $ f(1)leq f(x)$ for all $xin R$ so that $0leq ex-e^x$.Thus $exleq e^x$ for all $xin R.$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        it is easy to see $x=1$ is the absolute minimum, that is, $ f(1)leq f(x)$ for all $xin R$ so that $0leq ex-e^x$.Thus $exleq e^x$ for all $xin R.$






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          it is easy to see $x=1$ is the absolute minimum, that is, $ f(1)leq f(x)$ for all $xin R$ so that $0leq ex-e^x$.Thus $exleq e^x$ for all $xin R.$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          it is easy to see $x=1$ is the absolute minimum, that is, $ f(1)leq f(x)$ for all $xin R$ so that $0leq ex-e^x$.Thus $exleq e^x$ for all $xin R.$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 24 at 17:07









          gb2017

          944




          944






















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              We have that



              $$g(x)=e^x-ex implies g'(x)=e^x-e=0quad x=1$$



              moreover $g''(x)=e^x > 0$, therefore $x=1$ is a point of minimum for $g(x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                We have that



                $$g(x)=e^x-ex implies g'(x)=e^x-e=0quad x=1$$



                moreover $g''(x)=e^x > 0$, therefore $x=1$ is a point of minimum for $g(x)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  We have that



                  $$g(x)=e^x-ex implies g'(x)=e^x-e=0quad x=1$$



                  moreover $g''(x)=e^x > 0$, therefore $x=1$ is a point of minimum for $g(x)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  We have that



                  $$g(x)=e^x-ex implies g'(x)=e^x-e=0quad x=1$$



                  moreover $g''(x)=e^x > 0$, therefore $x=1$ is a point of minimum for $g(x)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 24 at 17:25

























                  answered Nov 24 at 16:57









                  gimusi

                  90.7k74495




                  90.7k74495






























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