Find all invariant lines of an affine transformation in plane











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Suppose we have affine transformation:



$$begin{align}x^* &= 2x+y-2\
y^* &= -3x- yend{align}$$



How can we find the equations of all invariant lines?



Thanks in advance










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Suppose we have affine transformation:



    $$begin{align}x^* &= 2x+y-2\
    y^* &= -3x- yend{align}$$



    How can we find the equations of all invariant lines?



    Thanks in advance










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose we have affine transformation:



      $$begin{align}x^* &= 2x+y-2\
      y^* &= -3x- yend{align}$$



      How can we find the equations of all invariant lines?



      Thanks in advance










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose we have affine transformation:



      $$begin{align}x^* &= 2x+y-2\
      y^* &= -3x- yend{align}$$



      How can we find the equations of all invariant lines?



      Thanks in advance







      linear-transformations affine-geometry






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      edited Nov 24 at 16:24









      Andrei

      10.4k21025




      10.4k21025










      asked Nov 24 at 16:19









      ziadxkabakibi

      11




      11






















          3 Answers
          3






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          down vote













          The equation of a line originally is $y=ax+b$. After transformation is $y^*=a^*x^*+b^*$. Plug in your equations for $x^*$ and $y^*$ into this equation, group the terms so you can rewrite it as $$y=f(a^*,b^*)x+g(a^*,b^*)$$
          Since the line is invariant, you have the same coefficients so $$f(a,b)=a\g(a,b)=b$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
            – amd
            Nov 24 at 22:20












          • Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
            – Andrei
            Nov 24 at 22:37










          • In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
            – amd
            Nov 24 at 22:39












          • I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
            – Andrei
            Nov 24 at 22:41










          • Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
            – amd
            Nov 24 at 22:46


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Calling $p = (x,y),, b = (-2,0)$ we have the generic line as



          $$
          p = p_0 + lambda vec v
          $$



          then



          $$
          p_0 + lambda vec v = A( p_0+lambdavec v) + b
          $$



          or



          $$
          A p_0-p_0+b = lambda(vec v-Avec v),,,forall lambdain mathbb{R}
          $$



          so we have



          $$
          (A-I_2)vec v = 0\
          (A-I_2)p_0 + b = 0
          $$



          now solving for $vec v, p_0$ we have the invariant lines.






          share|cite|improve this answer






























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Working in homogeneous coordinates, the point transformation $mathbf x'=Mmathbf x$ transforms lines as $mathbf l'=M^{-T}mathbf l$. The invariant lines $mathbf l=(lambda,mu,tau)^T$ are those for which $M^{-T}mathbf l$ is a nonzero multiple of $mathbf l$, so finding them amounts to finding eigenvectors of $M^{-T}$ that correspond to real nonzero eigenvalues. Alternatively, since the homogeneous coordinates are three-dimensional, the invariant lines are the solutions of $mathbf ltimes M^{-T}mathbf l=0$.



            Note that the line at infinity is always an invariant line of an affine transformation: the last column of $M^{-T}$ for such a transformation is $(0,0,1)^T$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              0
              down vote













              The equation of a line originally is $y=ax+b$. After transformation is $y^*=a^*x^*+b^*$. Plug in your equations for $x^*$ and $y^*$ into this equation, group the terms so you can rewrite it as $$y=f(a^*,b^*)x+g(a^*,b^*)$$
              Since the line is invariant, you have the same coefficients so $$f(a,b)=a\g(a,b)=b$$






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:20












              • Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:37










              • In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:39












              • I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:41










              • Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:46















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              The equation of a line originally is $y=ax+b$. After transformation is $y^*=a^*x^*+b^*$. Plug in your equations for $x^*$ and $y^*$ into this equation, group the terms so you can rewrite it as $$y=f(a^*,b^*)x+g(a^*,b^*)$$
              Since the line is invariant, you have the same coefficients so $$f(a,b)=a\g(a,b)=b$$






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:20












              • Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:37










              • In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:39












              • I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:41










              • Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:46













              up vote
              0
              down vote










              up vote
              0
              down vote









              The equation of a line originally is $y=ax+b$. After transformation is $y^*=a^*x^*+b^*$. Plug in your equations for $x^*$ and $y^*$ into this equation, group the terms so you can rewrite it as $$y=f(a^*,b^*)x+g(a^*,b^*)$$
              Since the line is invariant, you have the same coefficients so $$f(a,b)=a\g(a,b)=b$$






              share|cite|improve this answer












              The equation of a line originally is $y=ax+b$. After transformation is $y^*=a^*x^*+b^*$. Plug in your equations for $x^*$ and $y^*$ into this equation, group the terms so you can rewrite it as $$y=f(a^*,b^*)x+g(a^*,b^*)$$
              Since the line is invariant, you have the same coefficients so $$f(a,b)=a\g(a,b)=b$$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 24 at 16:30









              Andrei

              10.4k21025




              10.4k21025












              • You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:20












              • Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:37










              • In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:39












              • I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:41










              • Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:46


















              • You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:20












              • Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:37










              • In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:39












              • I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
                – Andrei
                Nov 24 at 22:41










              • Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
                – amd
                Nov 24 at 22:46
















              You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:20






              You’re omitting vertical lines ($x=k$).
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:20














              Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
              – Andrei
              Nov 24 at 22:37




              Yes. I should have mentioned that you need to check that. It is trivial to show that it is not invariant
              – Andrei
              Nov 24 at 22:37












              In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:39






              In this case, yes, but you’re presenting $y=ax+b$ as the generic equation of any line whatsoever.
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:39














              I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
              – Andrei
              Nov 24 at 22:41




              I could have done $ax+by+c=0$, but then I need to check the ratio of the coefficients, since $2ax+2by+2c=0$ is the same line.
              – Andrei
              Nov 24 at 22:41












              Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:46




              Either way you have to make an extra check beyond what you’ve got here: on the one hand you have to deal separately with vertical lines, on the other you have to examine ratios.
              – amd
              Nov 24 at 22:46










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Calling $p = (x,y),, b = (-2,0)$ we have the generic line as



              $$
              p = p_0 + lambda vec v
              $$



              then



              $$
              p_0 + lambda vec v = A( p_0+lambdavec v) + b
              $$



              or



              $$
              A p_0-p_0+b = lambda(vec v-Avec v),,,forall lambdain mathbb{R}
              $$



              so we have



              $$
              (A-I_2)vec v = 0\
              (A-I_2)p_0 + b = 0
              $$



              now solving for $vec v, p_0$ we have the invariant lines.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Calling $p = (x,y),, b = (-2,0)$ we have the generic line as



                $$
                p = p_0 + lambda vec v
                $$



                then



                $$
                p_0 + lambda vec v = A( p_0+lambdavec v) + b
                $$



                or



                $$
                A p_0-p_0+b = lambda(vec v-Avec v),,,forall lambdain mathbb{R}
                $$



                so we have



                $$
                (A-I_2)vec v = 0\
                (A-I_2)p_0 + b = 0
                $$



                now solving for $vec v, p_0$ we have the invariant lines.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Calling $p = (x,y),, b = (-2,0)$ we have the generic line as



                  $$
                  p = p_0 + lambda vec v
                  $$



                  then



                  $$
                  p_0 + lambda vec v = A( p_0+lambdavec v) + b
                  $$



                  or



                  $$
                  A p_0-p_0+b = lambda(vec v-Avec v),,,forall lambdain mathbb{R}
                  $$



                  so we have



                  $$
                  (A-I_2)vec v = 0\
                  (A-I_2)p_0 + b = 0
                  $$



                  now solving for $vec v, p_0$ we have the invariant lines.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Calling $p = (x,y),, b = (-2,0)$ we have the generic line as



                  $$
                  p = p_0 + lambda vec v
                  $$



                  then



                  $$
                  p_0 + lambda vec v = A( p_0+lambdavec v) + b
                  $$



                  or



                  $$
                  A p_0-p_0+b = lambda(vec v-Avec v),,,forall lambdain mathbb{R}
                  $$



                  so we have



                  $$
                  (A-I_2)vec v = 0\
                  (A-I_2)p_0 + b = 0
                  $$



                  now solving for $vec v, p_0$ we have the invariant lines.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 24 at 18:43

























                  answered Nov 24 at 18:35









                  Cesareo

                  7,5203516




                  7,5203516






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Working in homogeneous coordinates, the point transformation $mathbf x'=Mmathbf x$ transforms lines as $mathbf l'=M^{-T}mathbf l$. The invariant lines $mathbf l=(lambda,mu,tau)^T$ are those for which $M^{-T}mathbf l$ is a nonzero multiple of $mathbf l$, so finding them amounts to finding eigenvectors of $M^{-T}$ that correspond to real nonzero eigenvalues. Alternatively, since the homogeneous coordinates are three-dimensional, the invariant lines are the solutions of $mathbf ltimes M^{-T}mathbf l=0$.



                      Note that the line at infinity is always an invariant line of an affine transformation: the last column of $M^{-T}$ for such a transformation is $(0,0,1)^T$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer



























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Working in homogeneous coordinates, the point transformation $mathbf x'=Mmathbf x$ transforms lines as $mathbf l'=M^{-T}mathbf l$. The invariant lines $mathbf l=(lambda,mu,tau)^T$ are those for which $M^{-T}mathbf l$ is a nonzero multiple of $mathbf l$, so finding them amounts to finding eigenvectors of $M^{-T}$ that correspond to real nonzero eigenvalues. Alternatively, since the homogeneous coordinates are three-dimensional, the invariant lines are the solutions of $mathbf ltimes M^{-T}mathbf l=0$.



                        Note that the line at infinity is always an invariant line of an affine transformation: the last column of $M^{-T}$ for such a transformation is $(0,0,1)^T$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          Working in homogeneous coordinates, the point transformation $mathbf x'=Mmathbf x$ transforms lines as $mathbf l'=M^{-T}mathbf l$. The invariant lines $mathbf l=(lambda,mu,tau)^T$ are those for which $M^{-T}mathbf l$ is a nonzero multiple of $mathbf l$, so finding them amounts to finding eigenvectors of $M^{-T}$ that correspond to real nonzero eigenvalues. Alternatively, since the homogeneous coordinates are three-dimensional, the invariant lines are the solutions of $mathbf ltimes M^{-T}mathbf l=0$.



                          Note that the line at infinity is always an invariant line of an affine transformation: the last column of $M^{-T}$ for such a transformation is $(0,0,1)^T$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          Working in homogeneous coordinates, the point transformation $mathbf x'=Mmathbf x$ transforms lines as $mathbf l'=M^{-T}mathbf l$. The invariant lines $mathbf l=(lambda,mu,tau)^T$ are those for which $M^{-T}mathbf l$ is a nonzero multiple of $mathbf l$, so finding them amounts to finding eigenvectors of $M^{-T}$ that correspond to real nonzero eigenvalues. Alternatively, since the homogeneous coordinates are three-dimensional, the invariant lines are the solutions of $mathbf ltimes M^{-T}mathbf l=0$.



                          Note that the line at infinity is always an invariant line of an affine transformation: the last column of $M^{-T}$ for such a transformation is $(0,0,1)^T$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Nov 24 at 22:59

























                          answered Nov 24 at 22:29









                          amd

                          28.8k21049




                          28.8k21049






























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