Help understanding proof for: B is row equivalent to A iff B=PA where P is product of elementary matrices.
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In Hoffman and Kunze's Linear Algebra, following proof is given for this corollary:
Let A and B be m x n matrices over the field F. Then B is row-equivalent to A if and only if B=PA, where P is a product of m x m elementary matrices.
Proof. (1)Suppose B=PA where P= Es · · · E2E1 and the Ei are m x m elementary matrices. Then E1A is row-equivalent to A, and E2(E1A ) is row-equivalent to E1A . So E2E1A is row-equivalent to A ; and continuing in this way we see that (Es . . . E1)A is row-equivalent to A.
(2)Now suppose that B is row-equivalent to A. Let E1, E2,...,Es
the elementary matrices corresponding to some sequence of elementary row operations which carries A into B. Then B = (Es . . . E1)A
Although I get the corollary intuitively, as each elementary matrix is equivalent to elementary row operation, and thus multiplication of matrix with A is equivalent to series of applications of such elementary row operations. But I don't get how it's being proved here.
- Particularly, how (1) and (2) are connected? Moreover, in (2) we are supposing what we had to actually prove, so how does it help? Also, it sees quite like re-statement of corollary itself.
- In general, what constitutes a mathematical proof? In other words, how do we judge whether it's sufficient and correct? I did go through few questions here, like this one, but how to validate this proof specifically (especially differentiating it with intuition or re-statement)
linear-algebra proof-explanation
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
In Hoffman and Kunze's Linear Algebra, following proof is given for this corollary:
Let A and B be m x n matrices over the field F. Then B is row-equivalent to A if and only if B=PA, where P is a product of m x m elementary matrices.
Proof. (1)Suppose B=PA where P= Es · · · E2E1 and the Ei are m x m elementary matrices. Then E1A is row-equivalent to A, and E2(E1A ) is row-equivalent to E1A . So E2E1A is row-equivalent to A ; and continuing in this way we see that (Es . . . E1)A is row-equivalent to A.
(2)Now suppose that B is row-equivalent to A. Let E1, E2,...,Es
the elementary matrices corresponding to some sequence of elementary row operations which carries A into B. Then B = (Es . . . E1)A
Although I get the corollary intuitively, as each elementary matrix is equivalent to elementary row operation, and thus multiplication of matrix with A is equivalent to series of applications of such elementary row operations. But I don't get how it's being proved here.
- Particularly, how (1) and (2) are connected? Moreover, in (2) we are supposing what we had to actually prove, so how does it help? Also, it sees quite like re-statement of corollary itself.
- In general, what constitutes a mathematical proof? In other words, how do we judge whether it's sufficient and correct? I did go through few questions here, like this one, but how to validate this proof specifically (especially differentiating it with intuition or re-statement)
linear-algebra proof-explanation
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
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– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
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@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In Hoffman and Kunze's Linear Algebra, following proof is given for this corollary:
Let A and B be m x n matrices over the field F. Then B is row-equivalent to A if and only if B=PA, where P is a product of m x m elementary matrices.
Proof. (1)Suppose B=PA where P= Es · · · E2E1 and the Ei are m x m elementary matrices. Then E1A is row-equivalent to A, and E2(E1A ) is row-equivalent to E1A . So E2E1A is row-equivalent to A ; and continuing in this way we see that (Es . . . E1)A is row-equivalent to A.
(2)Now suppose that B is row-equivalent to A. Let E1, E2,...,Es
the elementary matrices corresponding to some sequence of elementary row operations which carries A into B. Then B = (Es . . . E1)A
Although I get the corollary intuitively, as each elementary matrix is equivalent to elementary row operation, and thus multiplication of matrix with A is equivalent to series of applications of such elementary row operations. But I don't get how it's being proved here.
- Particularly, how (1) and (2) are connected? Moreover, in (2) we are supposing what we had to actually prove, so how does it help? Also, it sees quite like re-statement of corollary itself.
- In general, what constitutes a mathematical proof? In other words, how do we judge whether it's sufficient and correct? I did go through few questions here, like this one, but how to validate this proof specifically (especially differentiating it with intuition or re-statement)
linear-algebra proof-explanation
$endgroup$
In Hoffman and Kunze's Linear Algebra, following proof is given for this corollary:
Let A and B be m x n matrices over the field F. Then B is row-equivalent to A if and only if B=PA, where P is a product of m x m elementary matrices.
Proof. (1)Suppose B=PA where P= Es · · · E2E1 and the Ei are m x m elementary matrices. Then E1A is row-equivalent to A, and E2(E1A ) is row-equivalent to E1A . So E2E1A is row-equivalent to A ; and continuing in this way we see that (Es . . . E1)A is row-equivalent to A.
(2)Now suppose that B is row-equivalent to A. Let E1, E2,...,Es
the elementary matrices corresponding to some sequence of elementary row operations which carries A into B. Then B = (Es . . . E1)A
Although I get the corollary intuitively, as each elementary matrix is equivalent to elementary row operation, and thus multiplication of matrix with A is equivalent to series of applications of such elementary row operations. But I don't get how it's being proved here.
- Particularly, how (1) and (2) are connected? Moreover, in (2) we are supposing what we had to actually prove, so how does it help? Also, it sees quite like re-statement of corollary itself.
- In general, what constitutes a mathematical proof? In other words, how do we judge whether it's sufficient and correct? I did go through few questions here, like this one, but how to validate this proof specifically (especially differentiating it with intuition or re-statement)
linear-algebra proof-explanation
linear-algebra proof-explanation
edited Dec 29 '18 at 20:19
dheeraj suthar
asked Dec 29 '18 at 19:42
dheeraj suthardheeraj suthar
72
72
1
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
1
1
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
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add a comment |
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$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
answered Dec 29 '18 at 20:40
angryavianangryavian
42.2k23481
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$begingroup$
In an "$X$ if and only if $Y$" proof, you have to prove two separate things: that $X$ implies $Y$, and that $Y$ implies $X$. This is what (1) and (2) are doing, and indeed they are separate proofs. In (1) you assume $X$ and prove $Y$, while in (2) you assume $Y$ and prove $X$.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
@angryavian Ahh.. Thanks. Got it. I was confused with the abrupt conclusion in (2). I now got it (it comes from the theorem which this corollary belongs to. e(A) = EA). Will be more patient in further reading. Should I delete this question, or any way I can accept your comment as answer?
$endgroup$
– dheeraj suthar
Dec 29 '18 at 20:24
$begingroup$
I copied my comment as an answer.
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 29 '18 at 20:40