Defining a function as transformation of open sets











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In a topological space $(X,tau)$ is it true that a function $f$ is uniquely defined if we define $f$ as transformation of open sets in $X$?



My proof would be like follows (by contradiction)



Suppose $f,g$ are such that for each $mathcal{O} in tau$ we have
$f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$, pick $x in X$, and assume $f(x) neq g(x)$.



Let $mathcal{O}_0 subset mathcal{O}$ an open set containing $x$ and pick $x_1 neq x$ in $mathcal{O}_0$. If we iterate we can construct a sequence of open sets $mathcal{O}_k$ such that



$$
begin{array}{l}
mathcal{O}_k subsetmathcal{O}_{k+1} \
x in mathcal{O}_k ; forall k \
x_k in O_{k-1} - mathcal{O}_k
end{array}
$$



such a sequence converges to $x$, if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are continuous then they will converge to the same point, since the for all $k$ we have $f(mathcal{O}_k) = g(mathcal{O}_k)$.



Is it correct?










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  • How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Why is ${x}$ closed?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Anyway, the answer is no.
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56






  • 1




    @Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:58






  • 1




    Why prove it if it may be false?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 15:09















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












In a topological space $(X,tau)$ is it true that a function $f$ is uniquely defined if we define $f$ as transformation of open sets in $X$?



My proof would be like follows (by contradiction)



Suppose $f,g$ are such that for each $mathcal{O} in tau$ we have
$f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$, pick $x in X$, and assume $f(x) neq g(x)$.



Let $mathcal{O}_0 subset mathcal{O}$ an open set containing $x$ and pick $x_1 neq x$ in $mathcal{O}_0$. If we iterate we can construct a sequence of open sets $mathcal{O}_k$ such that



$$
begin{array}{l}
mathcal{O}_k subsetmathcal{O}_{k+1} \
x in mathcal{O}_k ; forall k \
x_k in O_{k-1} - mathcal{O}_k
end{array}
$$



such a sequence converges to $x$, if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are continuous then they will converge to the same point, since the for all $k$ we have $f(mathcal{O}_k) = g(mathcal{O}_k)$.



Is it correct?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Why is ${x}$ closed?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Anyway, the answer is no.
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56






  • 1




    @Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:58






  • 1




    Why prove it if it may be false?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 15:09













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











In a topological space $(X,tau)$ is it true that a function $f$ is uniquely defined if we define $f$ as transformation of open sets in $X$?



My proof would be like follows (by contradiction)



Suppose $f,g$ are such that for each $mathcal{O} in tau$ we have
$f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$, pick $x in X$, and assume $f(x) neq g(x)$.



Let $mathcal{O}_0 subset mathcal{O}$ an open set containing $x$ and pick $x_1 neq x$ in $mathcal{O}_0$. If we iterate we can construct a sequence of open sets $mathcal{O}_k$ such that



$$
begin{array}{l}
mathcal{O}_k subsetmathcal{O}_{k+1} \
x in mathcal{O}_k ; forall k \
x_k in O_{k-1} - mathcal{O}_k
end{array}
$$



such a sequence converges to $x$, if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are continuous then they will converge to the same point, since the for all $k$ we have $f(mathcal{O}_k) = g(mathcal{O}_k)$.



Is it correct?










share|cite|improve this question















In a topological space $(X,tau)$ is it true that a function $f$ is uniquely defined if we define $f$ as transformation of open sets in $X$?



My proof would be like follows (by contradiction)



Suppose $f,g$ are such that for each $mathcal{O} in tau$ we have
$f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$, pick $x in X$, and assume $f(x) neq g(x)$.



Let $mathcal{O}_0 subset mathcal{O}$ an open set containing $x$ and pick $x_1 neq x$ in $mathcal{O}_0$. If we iterate we can construct a sequence of open sets $mathcal{O}_k$ such that



$$
begin{array}{l}
mathcal{O}_k subsetmathcal{O}_{k+1} \
x in mathcal{O}_k ; forall k \
x_k in O_{k-1} - mathcal{O}_k
end{array}
$$



such a sequence converges to $x$, if we assume that $f$ and $g$ are continuous then they will converge to the same point, since the for all $k$ we have $f(mathcal{O}_k) = g(mathcal{O}_k)$.



Is it correct?







general-topology functions






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 20 at 16:24

























asked Nov 20 at 14:53









user8469759

1,2811516




1,2811516












  • How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Why is ${x}$ closed?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Anyway, the answer is no.
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56






  • 1




    @Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:58






  • 1




    Why prove it if it may be false?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 15:09


















  • How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Why is ${x}$ closed?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56










  • Anyway, the answer is no.
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 14:56






  • 1




    @Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
    – Federico
    Nov 20 at 14:58






  • 1




    Why prove it if it may be false?
    – Randall
    Nov 20 at 15:09
















How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
– Federico
Nov 20 at 14:56




How do you prove $f(X - left{ x right}) = g(X - left{ x right}) Rightarrow X - f(left{ x right}) = X - g(left{ x right})$?
– Federico
Nov 20 at 14:56












Why is ${x}$ closed?
– Randall
Nov 20 at 14:56




Why is ${x}$ closed?
– Randall
Nov 20 at 14:56












Anyway, the answer is no.
– Randall
Nov 20 at 14:56




Anyway, the answer is no.
– Randall
Nov 20 at 14:56




1




1




@Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
– Federico
Nov 20 at 14:58




@Randall let's say that he works in T1 spaces... The implication I pointed out is still wrong. As is the general statement
– Federico
Nov 20 at 14:58




1




1




Why prove it if it may be false?
– Randall
Nov 20 at 15:09




Why prove it if it may be false?
– Randall
Nov 20 at 15:09










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Suppose that $Y$ is a Hausdorff space. Suppose that $f,g : X to Y$ are continuous maps for which $f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$ for all open $mathcal{O}$ in $X$. We claim that $f=g$.



Suppose to the contrary that there is a point $a in X$ with $f(a) neq g(a)$. As $Y$ is Hausdorff, we may separate these points: take disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$ in $Y$ containing $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ respectively. From $f(a) in U$ we have $a in f^{-1}(U)$, which is an open set. Hence $g(a) in g(f^{-1}(U))$. But by hypothesis, this says $g(a) in f(f^{-1}(U))$. But $f(f^{-1}(U)) subseteq U$, so we have $g(a) in U$, which contradicts the disjointness of $U$ and $V$.



Edit: A similar argument works in the case that $Y$ is only $T_0$. The definition there is that $Y$ is $T_0$ if for all points $y_1 neq y_2$ in $Y$ there is an open set $U$ containing one point but not the other (and you don't have control over which). If we can enclose $f(a)$ in an open set $U$ not containing $g(a)$ then run the same argument above. You obtain the same contradiction. If not, then we can enclose $g(a)$ in an open set that doesn't contain $f(a)$ and you run the symmetric argument (flip the roles of $f$ and $g$) and still get the same contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
    – user8469759
    Nov 20 at 19:59










  • Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
    – user8469759
    Nov 21 at 11:31











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up vote
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accepted










Suppose that $Y$ is a Hausdorff space. Suppose that $f,g : X to Y$ are continuous maps for which $f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$ for all open $mathcal{O}$ in $X$. We claim that $f=g$.



Suppose to the contrary that there is a point $a in X$ with $f(a) neq g(a)$. As $Y$ is Hausdorff, we may separate these points: take disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$ in $Y$ containing $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ respectively. From $f(a) in U$ we have $a in f^{-1}(U)$, which is an open set. Hence $g(a) in g(f^{-1}(U))$. But by hypothesis, this says $g(a) in f(f^{-1}(U))$. But $f(f^{-1}(U)) subseteq U$, so we have $g(a) in U$, which contradicts the disjointness of $U$ and $V$.



Edit: A similar argument works in the case that $Y$ is only $T_0$. The definition there is that $Y$ is $T_0$ if for all points $y_1 neq y_2$ in $Y$ there is an open set $U$ containing one point but not the other (and you don't have control over which). If we can enclose $f(a)$ in an open set $U$ not containing $g(a)$ then run the same argument above. You obtain the same contradiction. If not, then we can enclose $g(a)$ in an open set that doesn't contain $f(a)$ and you run the symmetric argument (flip the roles of $f$ and $g$) and still get the same contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
    – user8469759
    Nov 20 at 19:59










  • Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
    – user8469759
    Nov 21 at 11:31















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Suppose that $Y$ is a Hausdorff space. Suppose that $f,g : X to Y$ are continuous maps for which $f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$ for all open $mathcal{O}$ in $X$. We claim that $f=g$.



Suppose to the contrary that there is a point $a in X$ with $f(a) neq g(a)$. As $Y$ is Hausdorff, we may separate these points: take disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$ in $Y$ containing $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ respectively. From $f(a) in U$ we have $a in f^{-1}(U)$, which is an open set. Hence $g(a) in g(f^{-1}(U))$. But by hypothesis, this says $g(a) in f(f^{-1}(U))$. But $f(f^{-1}(U)) subseteq U$, so we have $g(a) in U$, which contradicts the disjointness of $U$ and $V$.



Edit: A similar argument works in the case that $Y$ is only $T_0$. The definition there is that $Y$ is $T_0$ if for all points $y_1 neq y_2$ in $Y$ there is an open set $U$ containing one point but not the other (and you don't have control over which). If we can enclose $f(a)$ in an open set $U$ not containing $g(a)$ then run the same argument above. You obtain the same contradiction. If not, then we can enclose $g(a)$ in an open set that doesn't contain $f(a)$ and you run the symmetric argument (flip the roles of $f$ and $g$) and still get the same contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
    – user8469759
    Nov 20 at 19:59










  • Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
    – user8469759
    Nov 21 at 11:31













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Suppose that $Y$ is a Hausdorff space. Suppose that $f,g : X to Y$ are continuous maps for which $f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$ for all open $mathcal{O}$ in $X$. We claim that $f=g$.



Suppose to the contrary that there is a point $a in X$ with $f(a) neq g(a)$. As $Y$ is Hausdorff, we may separate these points: take disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$ in $Y$ containing $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ respectively. From $f(a) in U$ we have $a in f^{-1}(U)$, which is an open set. Hence $g(a) in g(f^{-1}(U))$. But by hypothesis, this says $g(a) in f(f^{-1}(U))$. But $f(f^{-1}(U)) subseteq U$, so we have $g(a) in U$, which contradicts the disjointness of $U$ and $V$.



Edit: A similar argument works in the case that $Y$ is only $T_0$. The definition there is that $Y$ is $T_0$ if for all points $y_1 neq y_2$ in $Y$ there is an open set $U$ containing one point but not the other (and you don't have control over which). If we can enclose $f(a)$ in an open set $U$ not containing $g(a)$ then run the same argument above. You obtain the same contradiction. If not, then we can enclose $g(a)$ in an open set that doesn't contain $f(a)$ and you run the symmetric argument (flip the roles of $f$ and $g$) and still get the same contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer














Suppose that $Y$ is a Hausdorff space. Suppose that $f,g : X to Y$ are continuous maps for which $f(mathcal{O}) = g(mathcal{O})$ for all open $mathcal{O}$ in $X$. We claim that $f=g$.



Suppose to the contrary that there is a point $a in X$ with $f(a) neq g(a)$. As $Y$ is Hausdorff, we may separate these points: take disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$ in $Y$ containing $f(a)$ and $g(a)$ respectively. From $f(a) in U$ we have $a in f^{-1}(U)$, which is an open set. Hence $g(a) in g(f^{-1}(U))$. But by hypothesis, this says $g(a) in f(f^{-1}(U))$. But $f(f^{-1}(U)) subseteq U$, so we have $g(a) in U$, which contradicts the disjointness of $U$ and $V$.



Edit: A similar argument works in the case that $Y$ is only $T_0$. The definition there is that $Y$ is $T_0$ if for all points $y_1 neq y_2$ in $Y$ there is an open set $U$ containing one point but not the other (and you don't have control over which). If we can enclose $f(a)$ in an open set $U$ not containing $g(a)$ then run the same argument above. You obtain the same contradiction. If not, then we can enclose $g(a)$ in an open set that doesn't contain $f(a)$ and you run the symmetric argument (flip the roles of $f$ and $g$) and still get the same contradiction.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 20 at 17:32

























answered Nov 20 at 17:13









Randall

8,49411128




8,49411128












  • So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
    – user8469759
    Nov 20 at 19:59










  • Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
    – user8469759
    Nov 21 at 11:31


















  • So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
    – user8469759
    Nov 20 at 19:59










  • Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
    – user8469759
    Nov 21 at 11:31
















So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
– user8469759
Nov 20 at 19:59




So it is true, we can define functions by how they acts on opensets (with some assumptions).
– user8469759
Nov 20 at 19:59












Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
– user8469759
Nov 21 at 11:31




Out of curiosity, why my sequence argument doesn't work?
– user8469759
Nov 21 at 11:31


















 

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