Analytic functions having harmonic real and imaginary parts.











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I've bee set the following question in a homework assignment for my complex analysis class, but have literally no idea what it means by sufficiently regular.



Let $f : mathbb{C} to mathbb{C}$ be an analytic function, with $f = u + iv$. Prove that if $f$ is sufficiently regular the real
part and the imaginary part of $f$ (i.e. u and v) are harmonic functions in $mathbb{R}^2$
. That is, if we consider
$u$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ (where $z = x + iy$) we have
$u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 0$ ; $v_{xx} + v_{yy} = 0$.



Using $u_{xx}$ to denote the 2nd derivative of $u$ with respect to $x$.



We haven't mentioned anything about regularity conditions in lectures and I can't find anything about it in the online notes for the course.



Could someone please point me in the direction as to what it might mean by that? My first thought is that it might be something to do with considering it as a function from $mathbb{R}^2$ to $mathbb{R}^2$ with $u$ and $v$ as the component functions. But not sure what it means from there.



Thanks in advance










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  • I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:04










  • @Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:06










  • @OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
    – Mason
    Nov 25 at 22:09












  • The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:16










  • Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
    – user601175
    Nov 25 at 22:27

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I've bee set the following question in a homework assignment for my complex analysis class, but have literally no idea what it means by sufficiently regular.



Let $f : mathbb{C} to mathbb{C}$ be an analytic function, with $f = u + iv$. Prove that if $f$ is sufficiently regular the real
part and the imaginary part of $f$ (i.e. u and v) are harmonic functions in $mathbb{R}^2$
. That is, if we consider
$u$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ (where $z = x + iy$) we have
$u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 0$ ; $v_{xx} + v_{yy} = 0$.



Using $u_{xx}$ to denote the 2nd derivative of $u$ with respect to $x$.



We haven't mentioned anything about regularity conditions in lectures and I can't find anything about it in the online notes for the course.



Could someone please point me in the direction as to what it might mean by that? My first thought is that it might be something to do with considering it as a function from $mathbb{R}^2$ to $mathbb{R}^2$ with $u$ and $v$ as the component functions. But not sure what it means from there.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:04










  • @Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:06










  • @OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
    – Mason
    Nov 25 at 22:09












  • The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:16










  • Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
    – user601175
    Nov 25 at 22:27















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I've bee set the following question in a homework assignment for my complex analysis class, but have literally no idea what it means by sufficiently regular.



Let $f : mathbb{C} to mathbb{C}$ be an analytic function, with $f = u + iv$. Prove that if $f$ is sufficiently regular the real
part and the imaginary part of $f$ (i.e. u and v) are harmonic functions in $mathbb{R}^2$
. That is, if we consider
$u$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ (where $z = x + iy$) we have
$u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 0$ ; $v_{xx} + v_{yy} = 0$.



Using $u_{xx}$ to denote the 2nd derivative of $u$ with respect to $x$.



We haven't mentioned anything about regularity conditions in lectures and I can't find anything about it in the online notes for the course.



Could someone please point me in the direction as to what it might mean by that? My first thought is that it might be something to do with considering it as a function from $mathbb{R}^2$ to $mathbb{R}^2$ with $u$ and $v$ as the component functions. But not sure what it means from there.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question















I've bee set the following question in a homework assignment for my complex analysis class, but have literally no idea what it means by sufficiently regular.



Let $f : mathbb{C} to mathbb{C}$ be an analytic function, with $f = u + iv$. Prove that if $f$ is sufficiently regular the real
part and the imaginary part of $f$ (i.e. u and v) are harmonic functions in $mathbb{R}^2$
. That is, if we consider
$u$ as a function of $x$ and $y$ (where $z = x + iy$) we have
$u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 0$ ; $v_{xx} + v_{yy} = 0$.



Using $u_{xx}$ to denote the 2nd derivative of $u$ with respect to $x$.



We haven't mentioned anything about regularity conditions in lectures and I can't find anything about it in the online notes for the course.



Could someone please point me in the direction as to what it might mean by that? My first thought is that it might be something to do with considering it as a function from $mathbb{R}^2$ to $mathbb{R}^2$ with $u$ and $v$ as the component functions. But not sure what it means from there.



Thanks in advance







complex-analysis analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 25 at 22:19









Mason

1,8411527




1,8411527










asked Nov 25 at 21:58









user601175

83




83












  • I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:04










  • @Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:06










  • @OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
    – Mason
    Nov 25 at 22:09












  • The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:16










  • Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
    – user601175
    Nov 25 at 22:27




















  • I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:04










  • @Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:06










  • @OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
    – Mason
    Nov 25 at 22:09












  • The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
    – Olivier Moschetta
    Nov 25 at 22:16










  • Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
    – user601175
    Nov 25 at 22:27


















I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:04




I have no idea what is meant by "sufficiently regular" in that context. An analytic function is already as regular as can be!
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:04












@Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:06




@Mason Isn't OP explaining what he means by harmonic there?
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:06












@OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
– Mason
Nov 25 at 22:09






@OlivierMoschetta. You must be right. Hard to prove something sufficiently regular if the MSE community and the OP doesn't know what the expression means... Actually.... Maybe there is a way. What additional conditions are required for an analytic function to be shown to be harmonic in this way?
– Mason
Nov 25 at 22:09














The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:16




The real part of an analytic function is always harmonic. No extra conditions required. This is an immediate consequence of the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
– Olivier Moschetta
Nov 25 at 22:16












Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
– user601175
Nov 25 at 22:27






Are you using the Cauchy Riemann equations in the following way? ux=vy => uxx=vyx : uy=-vx => uyy= -vxy. Then adding them to get 0? In this case how do we know vyx=vxy
– user601175
Nov 25 at 22:27












1 Answer
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1
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If a function is analytic on a given domain, it doesn't need to be anything other than that to satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
By then taking second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) you easily arrive at Laplace's equation, which defines harmonic functions. Therefore, the only additional requirement is for the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) to exist and be continuous (on the same domain as u(x,y) and v(x,y)). Continuity is needed to apply equality of mixed partials (Schwarz's theorem) when deriving Laplace's equation.



Calculation details (now that I have learnt some MathJax basics):



Cauchy-Riemann equations:



$frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial v}{partial y}$



$frac{partial u}{partial y} = -frac{partial v}{partial x}$.



If the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) exist on the domain considered, we have:



$frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x}$



$frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = - frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



If the second-order partial derivatives are continuous on the domain considered, we have (Schwarz's theorem):



$frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



On that assumption, if we summate the above equations, we find Laplace's equation for u(x,y):



$frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = 0$.



Similarly, we find Laplace's equation for v(x,y):



$frac{partial^2 v}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 v}{partial y^2} = 0$.






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    If a function is analytic on a given domain, it doesn't need to be anything other than that to satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
    By then taking second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) you easily arrive at Laplace's equation, which defines harmonic functions. Therefore, the only additional requirement is for the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) to exist and be continuous (on the same domain as u(x,y) and v(x,y)). Continuity is needed to apply equality of mixed partials (Schwarz's theorem) when deriving Laplace's equation.



    Calculation details (now that I have learnt some MathJax basics):



    Cauchy-Riemann equations:



    $frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial v}{partial y}$



    $frac{partial u}{partial y} = -frac{partial v}{partial x}$.



    If the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) exist on the domain considered, we have:



    $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x}$



    $frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = - frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



    If the second-order partial derivatives are continuous on the domain considered, we have (Schwarz's theorem):



    $frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



    On that assumption, if we summate the above equations, we find Laplace's equation for u(x,y):



    $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = 0$.



    Similarly, we find Laplace's equation for v(x,y):



    $frac{partial^2 v}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 v}{partial y^2} = 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      If a function is analytic on a given domain, it doesn't need to be anything other than that to satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
      By then taking second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) you easily arrive at Laplace's equation, which defines harmonic functions. Therefore, the only additional requirement is for the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) to exist and be continuous (on the same domain as u(x,y) and v(x,y)). Continuity is needed to apply equality of mixed partials (Schwarz's theorem) when deriving Laplace's equation.



      Calculation details (now that I have learnt some MathJax basics):



      Cauchy-Riemann equations:



      $frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial v}{partial y}$



      $frac{partial u}{partial y} = -frac{partial v}{partial x}$.



      If the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) exist on the domain considered, we have:



      $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x}$



      $frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = - frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



      If the second-order partial derivatives are continuous on the domain considered, we have (Schwarz's theorem):



      $frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



      On that assumption, if we summate the above equations, we find Laplace's equation for u(x,y):



      $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = 0$.



      Similarly, we find Laplace's equation for v(x,y):



      $frac{partial^2 v}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 v}{partial y^2} = 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        If a function is analytic on a given domain, it doesn't need to be anything other than that to satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
        By then taking second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) you easily arrive at Laplace's equation, which defines harmonic functions. Therefore, the only additional requirement is for the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) to exist and be continuous (on the same domain as u(x,y) and v(x,y)). Continuity is needed to apply equality of mixed partials (Schwarz's theorem) when deriving Laplace's equation.



        Calculation details (now that I have learnt some MathJax basics):



        Cauchy-Riemann equations:



        $frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial v}{partial y}$



        $frac{partial u}{partial y} = -frac{partial v}{partial x}$.



        If the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) exist on the domain considered, we have:



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x}$



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = - frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



        If the second-order partial derivatives are continuous on the domain considered, we have (Schwarz's theorem):



        $frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



        On that assumption, if we summate the above equations, we find Laplace's equation for u(x,y):



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = 0$.



        Similarly, we find Laplace's equation for v(x,y):



        $frac{partial^2 v}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 v}{partial y^2} = 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        If a function is analytic on a given domain, it doesn't need to be anything other than that to satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations.
        By then taking second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) you easily arrive at Laplace's equation, which defines harmonic functions. Therefore, the only additional requirement is for the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) to exist and be continuous (on the same domain as u(x,y) and v(x,y)). Continuity is needed to apply equality of mixed partials (Schwarz's theorem) when deriving Laplace's equation.



        Calculation details (now that I have learnt some MathJax basics):



        Cauchy-Riemann equations:



        $frac{partial u}{partial x} = frac{partial v}{partial y}$



        $frac{partial u}{partial y} = -frac{partial v}{partial x}$.



        If the second-order partial derivatives of u(x,y) and v(x,y) exist on the domain considered, we have:



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x}$



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = - frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



        If the second-order partial derivatives are continuous on the domain considered, we have (Schwarz's theorem):



        $frac{partial^2 v}{partial y partial x} = frac{partial^2 v}{partial x partial y}$.



        On that assumption, if we summate the above equations, we find Laplace's equation for u(x,y):



        $frac{partial^2 u}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 u}{partial y^2} = 0$.



        Similarly, we find Laplace's equation for v(x,y):



        $frac{partial^2 v}{partial x^2} + frac{partial^2 v}{partial y^2} = 0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 1 at 17:27

























        answered Nov 30 at 19:01







        user621367





































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