If $A$ is a normal family, why does $bar A$ have to be?











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If $A$ is a normal family, why does $bar A$ have to be?




I am not sure how to prove this. Formally, given a sequence ${ f_n }$ of functions in $bar A$ we have to show that this has a subsequence which converges uniformly on evwry compact set in the domain. If ${f_n}$ has only finite number of functions from $bar A - A$ the ln this is true, but how can prove the general case?










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0
down vote

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If $A$ is a normal family, why does $bar A$ have to be?




I am not sure how to prove this. Formally, given a sequence ${ f_n }$ of functions in $bar A$ we have to show that this has a subsequence which converges uniformly on evwry compact set in the domain. If ${f_n}$ has only finite number of functions from $bar A - A$ the ln this is true, but how can prove the general case?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Great question! Keep it up.
    – The Great Duck
    Nov 26 at 0:02













up vote
0
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up vote
0
down vote

favorite












If $A$ is a normal family, why does $bar A$ have to be?




I am not sure how to prove this. Formally, given a sequence ${ f_n }$ of functions in $bar A$ we have to show that this has a subsequence which converges uniformly on evwry compact set in the domain. If ${f_n}$ has only finite number of functions from $bar A - A$ the ln this is true, but how can prove the general case?










share|cite|improve this question














If $A$ is a normal family, why does $bar A$ have to be?




I am not sure how to prove this. Formally, given a sequence ${ f_n }$ of functions in $bar A$ we have to show that this has a subsequence which converges uniformly on evwry compact set in the domain. If ${f_n}$ has only finite number of functions from $bar A - A$ the ln this is true, but how can prove the general case?







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asked Nov 25 at 22:53









Cute Brownie

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  • Great question! Keep it up.
    – The Great Duck
    Nov 26 at 0:02


















  • Great question! Keep it up.
    – The Great Duck
    Nov 26 at 0:02
















Great question! Keep it up.
– The Great Duck
Nov 26 at 0:02




Great question! Keep it up.
– The Great Duck
Nov 26 at 0:02










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A basic theorem about normal families says that a family of analytic functions is normal iff the the family is uniformly bounded on each compact subset of the domain. If $K$ is compact and $|f(z)| leq M$ for all $f in A$ for all $z in K$ then $|g(z)| leq M$ for all $z in K$ for any function $g$ in the closure of $A$, hence this closure is normal. [Note that closure here is w.r.t. uniform convergence on compact sets. So $g in overline {A}$ implies that $f_n to g$ uniformly on $K$ for some seqeunce ${f_n}$ in $A$].






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    A basic theorem about normal families says that a family of analytic functions is normal iff the the family is uniformly bounded on each compact subset of the domain. If $K$ is compact and $|f(z)| leq M$ for all $f in A$ for all $z in K$ then $|g(z)| leq M$ for all $z in K$ for any function $g$ in the closure of $A$, hence this closure is normal. [Note that closure here is w.r.t. uniform convergence on compact sets. So $g in overline {A}$ implies that $f_n to g$ uniformly on $K$ for some seqeunce ${f_n}$ in $A$].






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      A basic theorem about normal families says that a family of analytic functions is normal iff the the family is uniformly bounded on each compact subset of the domain. If $K$ is compact and $|f(z)| leq M$ for all $f in A$ for all $z in K$ then $|g(z)| leq M$ for all $z in K$ for any function $g$ in the closure of $A$, hence this closure is normal. [Note that closure here is w.r.t. uniform convergence on compact sets. So $g in overline {A}$ implies that $f_n to g$ uniformly on $K$ for some seqeunce ${f_n}$ in $A$].






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        A basic theorem about normal families says that a family of analytic functions is normal iff the the family is uniformly bounded on each compact subset of the domain. If $K$ is compact and $|f(z)| leq M$ for all $f in A$ for all $z in K$ then $|g(z)| leq M$ for all $z in K$ for any function $g$ in the closure of $A$, hence this closure is normal. [Note that closure here is w.r.t. uniform convergence on compact sets. So $g in overline {A}$ implies that $f_n to g$ uniformly on $K$ for some seqeunce ${f_n}$ in $A$].






        share|cite|improve this answer












        A basic theorem about normal families says that a family of analytic functions is normal iff the the family is uniformly bounded on each compact subset of the domain. If $K$ is compact and $|f(z)| leq M$ for all $f in A$ for all $z in K$ then $|g(z)| leq M$ for all $z in K$ for any function $g$ in the closure of $A$, hence this closure is normal. [Note that closure here is w.r.t. uniform convergence on compact sets. So $g in overline {A}$ implies that $f_n to g$ uniformly on $K$ for some seqeunce ${f_n}$ in $A$].







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        answered Nov 25 at 23:46









        Kavi Rama Murthy

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