What does $f(2n) = n + 3$ mean? [closed]












0














Here is the full question. Consider a function $f:mathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(2n) = n + 3$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. Prove that $f$ is not an injective function.



At first I thought I could solve it by replace the n on the right with 2n, so f(n) = (2n) + 3. But that doesn't seem right. I also tried looking for this form of functions, but I don't know what to search for.










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closed as unclear what you're asking by José Carlos Santos, 5xum, MisterRiemann, Siong Thye Goh, Masacroso Dec 4 '18 at 10:47


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















  • Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
    – Teddan the Terran
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:36










  • You have to prove it is not injective...?
    – StackTD
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
    – 5xum
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
    – timtfj
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:47












  • $f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
    – Martin R
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:51


















0














Here is the full question. Consider a function $f:mathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(2n) = n + 3$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. Prove that $f$ is not an injective function.



At first I thought I could solve it by replace the n on the right with 2n, so f(n) = (2n) + 3. But that doesn't seem right. I also tried looking for this form of functions, but I don't know what to search for.










share|cite|improve this question















closed as unclear what you're asking by José Carlos Santos, 5xum, MisterRiemann, Siong Thye Goh, Masacroso Dec 4 '18 at 10:47


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















  • Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
    – Teddan the Terran
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:36










  • You have to prove it is not injective...?
    – StackTD
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
    – 5xum
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
    – timtfj
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:47












  • $f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
    – Martin R
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:51
















0












0








0


0





Here is the full question. Consider a function $f:mathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(2n) = n + 3$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. Prove that $f$ is not an injective function.



At first I thought I could solve it by replace the n on the right with 2n, so f(n) = (2n) + 3. But that doesn't seem right. I also tried looking for this form of functions, but I don't know what to search for.










share|cite|improve this question















Here is the full question. Consider a function $f:mathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}$ such that $f(2n) = n + 3$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. Prove that $f$ is not an injective function.



At first I thought I could solve it by replace the n on the right with 2n, so f(n) = (2n) + 3. But that doesn't seem right. I also tried looking for this form of functions, but I don't know what to search for.







functions notation






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 4 '18 at 11:17







soyfroggy

















asked Dec 4 '18 at 10:32









soyfroggysoyfroggy

133




133




closed as unclear what you're asking by José Carlos Santos, 5xum, MisterRiemann, Siong Thye Goh, Masacroso Dec 4 '18 at 10:47


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






closed as unclear what you're asking by José Carlos Santos, 5xum, MisterRiemann, Siong Thye Goh, Masacroso Dec 4 '18 at 10:47


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.














  • Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
    – Teddan the Terran
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:36










  • You have to prove it is not injective...?
    – StackTD
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
    – 5xum
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
    – timtfj
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:47












  • $f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
    – Martin R
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:51




















  • Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
    – Teddan the Terran
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:36










  • You have to prove it is not injective...?
    – StackTD
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
    – 5xum
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:38










  • You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
    – timtfj
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:47












  • $f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
    – Martin R
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:51


















Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
– Teddan the Terran
Dec 4 '18 at 10:36




Is that all the information there is about the function? In that case, it seems only to be defined for even integers, and then it is indeed injective.
– Teddan the Terran
Dec 4 '18 at 10:36












You have to prove it is not injective...?
– StackTD
Dec 4 '18 at 10:38




You have to prove it is not injective...?
– StackTD
Dec 4 '18 at 10:38












The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
– 5xum
Dec 4 '18 at 10:38




The function seems injective, but it's also quite unclear what exactly the function is. Without further details, this question is ripe for closing as it is unclear.
– 5xum
Dec 4 '18 at 10:38












You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
– timtfj
Dec 4 '18 at 10:47






You could always turn it into $g(m)$ where $m=2n$ then convert it back when solved. ie turn what you're unsure how to handle into something you are sure how to handle.
– timtfj
Dec 4 '18 at 10:47














$f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
– Martin R
Dec 4 '18 at 10:51






$f: mathbb{Z} to mathbb{Z}$ maps all even integers $2n$ to $n+3$, therefore it cannot be injective on $mathbb{Z}$: $f(1) = f(m)$ for $m = 2(f(1)-3)$.
– Martin R
Dec 4 '18 at 10:51












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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1














I suppose that $f$ is defined on $D={2n: n in mathbb N}$



Then we have



$f(2)=f(2 cdot 1)=1+3=4, quad f(4)=f(2 cdot 2)=2+3=5,quad f(6)=f(2 cdot 3)=3+3=6,$ etc ....






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  • does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
    – soyfroggy
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:48






  • 1




    @soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
    – Eff
    Dec 4 '18 at 11:23


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














I suppose that $f$ is defined on $D={2n: n in mathbb N}$



Then we have



$f(2)=f(2 cdot 1)=1+3=4, quad f(4)=f(2 cdot 2)=2+3=5,quad f(6)=f(2 cdot 3)=3+3=6,$ etc ....






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
    – soyfroggy
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:48






  • 1




    @soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
    – Eff
    Dec 4 '18 at 11:23
















1














I suppose that $f$ is defined on $D={2n: n in mathbb N}$



Then we have



$f(2)=f(2 cdot 1)=1+3=4, quad f(4)=f(2 cdot 2)=2+3=5,quad f(6)=f(2 cdot 3)=3+3=6,$ etc ....






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
    – soyfroggy
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:48






  • 1




    @soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
    – Eff
    Dec 4 '18 at 11:23














1












1








1






I suppose that $f$ is defined on $D={2n: n in mathbb N}$



Then we have



$f(2)=f(2 cdot 1)=1+3=4, quad f(4)=f(2 cdot 2)=2+3=5,quad f(6)=f(2 cdot 3)=3+3=6,$ etc ....






share|cite|improve this answer












I suppose that $f$ is defined on $D={2n: n in mathbb N}$



Then we have



$f(2)=f(2 cdot 1)=1+3=4, quad f(4)=f(2 cdot 2)=2+3=5,quad f(6)=f(2 cdot 3)=3+3=6,$ etc ....







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 4 '18 at 10:36









FredFred

44.4k1845




44.4k1845












  • does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
    – soyfroggy
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:48






  • 1




    @soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
    – Eff
    Dec 4 '18 at 11:23


















  • does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
    – soyfroggy
    Dec 4 '18 at 10:48






  • 1




    @soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
    – Eff
    Dec 4 '18 at 11:23
















does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
– soyfroggy
Dec 4 '18 at 10:48




does it mean the function $f$ is only defined in the domain where x is even?
– soyfroggy
Dec 4 '18 at 10:48




1




1




@soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
– Eff
Dec 4 '18 at 11:23




@soyfroggy Not necessarily. The function simply satisfies the condition $f(2n) = n+3$. It could be, just as a hypothetical example, that for odd numbers it is zero always, i.e. $f(2n+1) = 0.$ You have simply been given how the function is defined for even numbers, that doesn't by itself say anything about how it is defined on odd numbers.
– Eff
Dec 4 '18 at 11:23



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