Convergence of Sum of Sequences
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This week, I learned a bit more about limits, convergence and divergence.
I was given a sum of two sequences and asked to tell whether or not it is convergent, and what its limit is:
$a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
which I re-wrote into
$lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n +lim_{nto infty}frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
I noticed that $lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n$ isn't convergent, whereas the latter is convergent and has the limit of $0$. That is why I'm not entirely sure whether $a_n$ is convergent or not, and got confused.
I hope someone can clear my doubts and explain their answer to me!
Thank you.
sequences-and-series limits convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This week, I learned a bit more about limits, convergence and divergence.
I was given a sum of two sequences and asked to tell whether or not it is convergent, and what its limit is:
$a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
which I re-wrote into
$lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n +lim_{nto infty}frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
I noticed that $lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n$ isn't convergent, whereas the latter is convergent and has the limit of $0$. That is why I'm not entirely sure whether $a_n$ is convergent or not, and got confused.
I hope someone can clear my doubts and explain their answer to me!
Thank you.
sequences-and-series limits convergence
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1
$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This week, I learned a bit more about limits, convergence and divergence.
I was given a sum of two sequences and asked to tell whether or not it is convergent, and what its limit is:
$a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
which I re-wrote into
$lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n +lim_{nto infty}frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
I noticed that $lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n$ isn't convergent, whereas the latter is convergent and has the limit of $0$. That is why I'm not entirely sure whether $a_n$ is convergent or not, and got confused.
I hope someone can clear my doubts and explain their answer to me!
Thank you.
sequences-and-series limits convergence
$endgroup$
This week, I learned a bit more about limits, convergence and divergence.
I was given a sum of two sequences and asked to tell whether or not it is convergent, and what its limit is:
$a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
which I re-wrote into
$lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n +lim_{nto infty}frac{1}{n^2 +1}$
I noticed that $lim_{nto infty}(-1)^n$ isn't convergent, whereas the latter is convergent and has the limit of $0$. That is why I'm not entirely sure whether $a_n$ is convergent or not, and got confused.
I hope someone can clear my doubts and explain their answer to me!
Thank you.
sequences-and-series limits convergence
sequences-and-series limits convergence
asked Dec 5 '18 at 19:43
RikkRikk
494
494
1
$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48
1
1
$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48
$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
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Let $u_n=(-1)^n$ and
$v_n=frac{1}{n^2+1}$.
$(u_n)$ is divergent since
$$lim u_{2n}ne lim u_{2n+1}$$
$(v_n)$ is convergent since
$$lim v_n=0.$$
the sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one is DIVERGENT.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should look at the global situation rather than focusing on the specific example.
The sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one diverges. If this wasn't the case the difference of the sum and the convergent sequence would converge. That can't be as this is equal to the divergent sequence.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let consider
n odd $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to -1$
n even $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to 1$
what can we conclude, recalling that for a convergent sequence all the subsequence need to converge to the same limit?
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$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
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@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $u_n=(-1)^n$ and
$v_n=frac{1}{n^2+1}$.
$(u_n)$ is divergent since
$$lim u_{2n}ne lim u_{2n+1}$$
$(v_n)$ is convergent since
$$lim v_n=0.$$
the sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one is DIVERGENT.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $u_n=(-1)^n$ and
$v_n=frac{1}{n^2+1}$.
$(u_n)$ is divergent since
$$lim u_{2n}ne lim u_{2n+1}$$
$(v_n)$ is convergent since
$$lim v_n=0.$$
the sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one is DIVERGENT.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $u_n=(-1)^n$ and
$v_n=frac{1}{n^2+1}$.
$(u_n)$ is divergent since
$$lim u_{2n}ne lim u_{2n+1}$$
$(v_n)$ is convergent since
$$lim v_n=0.$$
the sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one is DIVERGENT.
$endgroup$
Let $u_n=(-1)^n$ and
$v_n=frac{1}{n^2+1}$.
$(u_n)$ is divergent since
$$lim u_{2n}ne lim u_{2n+1}$$
$(v_n)$ is convergent since
$$lim v_n=0.$$
the sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one is DIVERGENT.
answered Dec 5 '18 at 19:50
hamam_Abdallahhamam_Abdallah
38k21634
38k21634
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should look at the global situation rather than focusing on the specific example.
The sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one diverges. If this wasn't the case the difference of the sum and the convergent sequence would converge. That can't be as this is equal to the divergent sequence.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should look at the global situation rather than focusing on the specific example.
The sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one diverges. If this wasn't the case the difference of the sum and the convergent sequence would converge. That can't be as this is equal to the divergent sequence.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You should look at the global situation rather than focusing on the specific example.
The sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one diverges. If this wasn't the case the difference of the sum and the convergent sequence would converge. That can't be as this is equal to the divergent sequence.
$endgroup$
You should look at the global situation rather than focusing on the specific example.
The sum of a convergent sequence and a divergent one diverges. If this wasn't the case the difference of the sum and the convergent sequence would converge. That can't be as this is equal to the divergent sequence.
answered Dec 5 '18 at 19:54
mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net
25.6k21953
25.6k21953
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let consider
n odd $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to -1$
n even $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to 1$
what can we conclude, recalling that for a convergent sequence all the subsequence need to converge to the same limit?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let consider
n odd $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to -1$
n even $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to 1$
what can we conclude, recalling that for a convergent sequence all the subsequence need to converge to the same limit?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let consider
n odd $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to -1$
n even $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to 1$
what can we conclude, recalling that for a convergent sequence all the subsequence need to converge to the same limit?
$endgroup$
Let consider
n odd $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to -1$
n even $implies a_n := (-1)^n + frac{1}{n^2 +1} to 1$
what can we conclude, recalling that for a convergent sequence all the subsequence need to converge to the same limit?
edited Dec 5 '18 at 19:57
answered Dec 5 '18 at 19:49
gimusigimusi
1
1
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
We conclude is that $a_n$ cannot be convergent! Thank you.
$endgroup$
– Rikk
Dec 5 '18 at 20:12
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
$begingroup$
@Rikk Yes of course that the general way to prove that. You are welcome! Bye
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 5 '18 at 20:14
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
To start with, what do you know about sums of sequences and their convergence?
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Dec 5 '18 at 19:48