Double inequality with a certain number of reals












6












$begingroup$


I've encountered the following problem that I don't know how to solve:


Given positive natural $n$ and positive real $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n$ prove that there exists such positive natural $N$ that

$(1+frac1n)^Nge 2 (x_1+x_2+...+x_{n-1}) + frac{N}nx_nge N^n$.


I don't even know how to start with either of the parts, leave alone both of them simultaneously. I supposed it may be done by the inequality of means but my attempts didn't show anything interesting.


Appreciate your help.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @EricTowers x. My bad
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:33










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:50












  • $begingroup$
    Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 21:01


















6












$begingroup$


I've encountered the following problem that I don't know how to solve:


Given positive natural $n$ and positive real $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n$ prove that there exists such positive natural $N$ that

$(1+frac1n)^Nge 2 (x_1+x_2+...+x_{n-1}) + frac{N}nx_nge N^n$.


I don't even know how to start with either of the parts, leave alone both of them simultaneously. I supposed it may be done by the inequality of means but my attempts didn't show anything interesting.


Appreciate your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @EricTowers x. My bad
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:33










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:50












  • $begingroup$
    Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 21:01
















6












6








6


2



$begingroup$


I've encountered the following problem that I don't know how to solve:


Given positive natural $n$ and positive real $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n$ prove that there exists such positive natural $N$ that

$(1+frac1n)^Nge 2 (x_1+x_2+...+x_{n-1}) + frac{N}nx_nge N^n$.


I don't even know how to start with either of the parts, leave alone both of them simultaneously. I supposed it may be done by the inequality of means but my attempts didn't show anything interesting.


Appreciate your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I've encountered the following problem that I don't know how to solve:


Given positive natural $n$ and positive real $x_1, x_2, ..., x_n$ prove that there exists such positive natural $N$ that

$(1+frac1n)^Nge 2 (x_1+x_2+...+x_{n-1}) + frac{N}nx_nge N^n$.


I don't even know how to start with either of the parts, leave alone both of them simultaneously. I supposed it may be done by the inequality of means but my attempts didn't show anything interesting.


Appreciate your help.







inequality






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 5 '18 at 20:51







Sorry Norry

















asked Dec 5 '18 at 19:57









Sorry NorrySorry Norry

342




342












  • $begingroup$
    @EricTowers x. My bad
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:33










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:50












  • $begingroup$
    Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 21:01




















  • $begingroup$
    @EricTowers x. My bad
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:04










  • $begingroup$
    If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:33










  • $begingroup$
    @JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
    $endgroup$
    – Sorry Norry
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:50












  • $begingroup$
    Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
    $endgroup$
    – Joel Moreira
    Dec 5 '18 at 21:01


















$begingroup$
@EricTowers x. My bad
$endgroup$
– Sorry Norry
Dec 5 '18 at 20:04




$begingroup$
@EricTowers x. My bad
$endgroup$
– Sorry Norry
Dec 5 '18 at 20:04












$begingroup$
If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 20:33




$begingroup$
If $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1$ the inequality reduces to $(3/2)^Ngeq N-1geq N^2$, and the second inequality can't be true for any $N$. Do you have a typo somewhere?
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 20:33












$begingroup$
@JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
$endgroup$
– Sorry Norry
Dec 5 '18 at 20:50






$begingroup$
@JoelMoreira Thank you. I made an error. The correct “developed” fraction in the middle should be reducible to 2. I was too careless. I know it changes a lot. Could you please help me nonetheless?
$endgroup$
– Sorry Norry
Dec 5 '18 at 20:50














$begingroup$
Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 20:59




$begingroup$
Hm, still when $n=2$ and $x_1=x_2=1/4$ the second inequality becomes $1/2+N/8 geq N^2$ which does not have a solution $N$.
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 20:59












$begingroup$
More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 21:01






$begingroup$
More generally, the middle term is linear in $N$ and the right hand side is quadratic when $n=2$, so the second inequality will probably have no solution, unless something changes more dramatically.
$endgroup$
– Joel Moreira
Dec 5 '18 at 21:01












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